What are the frequency limits for Advanced class operators in the75/80-meter band (ITU Region 2)?
3525 - 3750 kHz and 3775 - 4000 kHz
3500 - 3525 kHz and 3800 - 4000 kHz
3500 - 3525 kHz and 3800 - 3890 kHz
3525 - 3775 kHz and 3800 - 4000 kHz
A
4001 0
A1A02
What are the frequency limits for Advanced class operators in the 40-meter band (ITU Region 2)?
7000 - 7300 kHz
7025 - 7300 kHz
7025 - 7350 kHz
7000 - 7025 kHz
B
4002 0
A1A03
#What are the frequency limits for Advanced class operators in the 20-meter band?
14000 - 14150 kHz and 14175 - 14350 kHz
14025 - 14175 kHz and 14200 - 14350 kHz
14000 - 14025 kHz and 14200 - 14350 kHz
14025 - 14150 kHz and 14175 - 14350 kHz
D
4003 0
A1A04
What are the frequency limits for Advanced class operators in the 15-meter band?
21000 - 21200 kHz and 21250 - 21450 kHz
21000 - 21200 kHz and 21300 - 21450 kHz
21025 - 21200 kHz and 21225 - 21450 kHz
21025 - 21250 kHz and 21270 - 21450 kHz
C
4004 0
A1A05
If you are a Technician Plus licensee with a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for Advanced privileges, how do you identify your station when transmitting on 14.185 MHz?
Give your call sign followed by the name of the VEC who coordinated the exam session where you obtained the CSCE
Give your call sign followed by the slant mark "/" followed by the identifier "AA"
You may not use your new frequency privileges until your license arrives from the FCC
Give your call sign followed by the word "Advanced"
B
4005 0
A1A06
How must an Advanced class operator using Amateur Extra frequencies identify during a contest, assuming the contest control operator holds an Amateur Extra class license?
With his or her own call sign
With the control operator's call sign
With his or her own call sign followed by the identifier "AE"
With the control operator's call sign followed by his or her own call sign
B
4006 0
A1A07
How must an Advanced class operator using Advanced frequencies identify from a Technician Plus class operator's station?
With either his or her own call sign followed by the identifier "KT", or the Technician Plus call sign followed by the identifier "AA"
With the Technician Plus call sign
The Advanced class operator cannot use Advanced frequencies while operating the Technician Plus station
With either his or her own call sign only, or the Technician Plus call sign followed by his or her own call sign
D
4007 0
A1A08
What is the maximum mean power permitted for any spurious emission from a transmitter or external RF power amplifier transmitting on a frequency below 30 MHz?
50 mW
100 mW
10 mW
10 W
A
4008 0
A1A09
How much below the mean power of the fundamental emission must any spurious emissions from a station transmitter or external RF power amplifier transmitting on a frequency below 30 MHz be attenuated?
At least 10 dB
At least 40 dB
At least 50 dB
At least 100 dB
B
4009 0
A1A10
How much below the mean power of the fundamental emission must any spurious emissions from a transmitter or external RF power amplifier transmitting on a frequency between 30 and 225 MHz be attenuated?
At least 10 dB
At least 40 dB
At least 60 dB
At least 100 dB
C
4010 0
A1A11
What is the maximum mean power permitted for any spurious emission from a transmitter having a mean power of 25 W or less on frequencies between 30 and 225 MHz?
5 microwatts
10 microwatts
20 microwatts
25 microwatts
D
4011 0
A1B01
What is meant by a remotely controlled station?
A station operated away from its regular home location
Control of a station from a point located other than at the station transmitter
A station operating under automatic control
A station controlled indirectly through a control link
D
4012 0
A1B02
What is the term for the control of a station that is transmitting without the control operator being present at the control point?
Simplex control
Manual control
Linear control
Automatic control
D
4013 0
A1B03
Which kind of station operation may not be automatically controlled?
Control of a model craft
Beacon operation
Auxiliary operation
Repeater operation
A
4014 0
A1B04
Which kind of station operation may be automatically controlled?
Stations without a control operator
Stations in repeater operation
Stations under remote control
Stations controlling model craft
B
4015 0
A1B05
What is meant by automatic control of a station?
The use of devices and procedures for control so that a control operator does not have to be present at a control point
A station operating with its output power controlled automatically
Remotely controlling a station such that a control operator does not have to be present at the control point at all times
The use of a control link between a control point and a locally controlled station
A
4016 0
A1B06
How do the control operator responsibilities of a station under automatic control differ from one under local control?
Under local control there is no control operator
Under automatic control a control operator is not required to be present at a control point
Under automatic control there is no control operator
Under local control a control operator is not required to be present at a control point
B
4017 0
A1B07
What frequencies in the 10-meter band are available for repeater operation?
28.0 - 28.7 MHz
29.0 - 29.7 MHz
29.5 - 29.7 MHz
28.5 - 29.7 MHz
C
4018 0
A1B08
What frequencies in the 6-meter band are available for repeater operation (ITU Region 2)?
51.00 - 52.00 MHz
50.25 - 52.00 MHz
52.00 - 53.00 MHz
51.00 - 54.00 MHz
D
4019 0
A1B09
What frequencies in the 2-meter band are available for repeater operation (ITU Region 2)?
144.5 - 145.5 and 146 - 148 MHz
144.5 - 148 MHz
144 - 145.5 and 146 - 148 MHz
144 - 148 MHz
A
4020 0
A1B10
What frequencies in the 1.25-meter band are available for repeater operation (ITU Region 2)?
220.25 - 225.00 MHz
222.15 - 225.00 MHz
221.00 - 225.00 MHz
223.00 - 225.00 MHz
B
4021 0
A1B11
What frequencies in the 70-cm band are available for repeater operation (ITU Region 2)?
420 - 431, 433 - 435 and 438 - 450 MHz
420 - 440 and 445 - 450 MHz
420 - 435 and 438 - 450 MHz
420 - 431, 435 - 438 and 439 - 450 MHz
A
4022 0
A1B12
What frequencies in the 23-cm band are available for repeater operation?
1270 - 1300 MHz
1270 - 1295 MHz
1240 - 1300 MHz
Repeater operation is not permitted in the band
C
4023 0
A1B13
If the control link of a station under remote control malfunctions, how long may the station continue to transmit?
5 seconds
10 minutes
3 minutes
5 minutes
C
4024 0
A1B14
What is a control link?
A device that automatically controls an unattended station
An automatically operated link between two stations
The means of control between a control point and a remotely controlled station
A device that limits the time of a station's transmission
C
4025 0
A1B15
What is the term for apparatus to effect remote control between a control point and a remotely controlled station?
A tone link
A wire control
A remote control
A control link
D
4026 0
A1C01
How many external RF amplifiers of a particular design capable of operation below 144 MHz may an unlicensed, non-amateur build or modify in one calendar year without obtaining a grant of FCC type acceptance?
1
5
10
None
D
4027 0
A1C02
If an RF amplifier manufacturer was granted FCC type acceptance for one of its amplifier models for amateur use, what would this allow the manufacturer to market?
All current models of their equipment
Only that particular amplifier model
Any future amplifier models
Both the current and any future amplifier models
B
4028 0
A1C03
Under what condition may an equipment dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has not been FCC type accepted?
If it was purchased in used condition from an amateur operator and is sold to another amateur operator for use at that operator's station
If it was assembled from a kit by the equipment dealer
If it was imported from a manufacturer in a country that does not require type acceptance of RF power amplifiers
If it was imported from a manufacturer in another country, and it was type accepted by that country's government
A
4029 0
A1C04
Which of the following is one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC type acceptance?
It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5watts of mean RF input power
It must be capable of external RF switching between its input and output networks
It must exhibit a gain of 0 dB or less over its full output range
It must satisfy the spurious emission standards when operated at its full output power
D
4030 0
A1C05
Which of the following is one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC type acceptance?
It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5watts of mean RF input power
It must be capable of external RF switching between its input and output networks
It must exhibit a gain of 0 dB or less over its full output range
It must satisfy the spurious emission standards when placed in the "standby" or "off" position, but is still connected to the transmitter
D
4031 0
A1C06
Which of the following is one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC type acceptance?
It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5watts of mean RF input power
It must exhibit a gain of at least 20 dB for any input signal
It must not be capable of operation on any frequency between 24 MHz and 35 MHz
Any spurious emissions from the amplifier must be no more than 40dB stronger than the desired output signal
C
4032 0
A1C07
Which of the following is one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC type acceptance?
It must have a time-delay circuit to prevent it from operating continuously for more than ten minutes
It must satisfy the spurious emission standards when driven with at least 50 W mean RF power (unless a higher drive level is specified)
It must not be capable of modification by an amateur operator without voiding the warranty
It must exhibit no more than 6 dB of gain over its entire operating range
B
4033 0
A1C08
Which of the following would disqualify an external RF power amplifier from being granted FCC type acceptance?
Any accessible wiring which, when altered, would permit operation of the amplifier in a manner contrary to FCC Rules
Failure to include a schematic diagram and theory of operation manual that would permit an amateur to modify the amplifier
The capability of being switched by the operator to any amateur frequency below 24 MHz
Failure to produce 1500 watts of output power when driven by at least 50 watts of mean input power
A
4034 0
A1C09
Which of the following would disqualify an external RF power amplifier from being granted FCC type acceptance?
Failure to include controls or adjustments that would permit the amplifier to operate on any frequency below 24 MHz
Failure to produce 1500 watts of output power when driven by at least 50 watts of mean input power
Any features designed to facilitate operation in a telecommunication service other than the Amateur Service
The omission of a schematic diagram and theory of operation manual that would permit an amateur to modify the amplifier
C
4035 0
A1C10
Which of the following would disqualify an external RF power amplifier from being granted FCC type acceptance?
The omission of a safety switch in the high-voltage power supply to turn off the power if the cabinet is opened
Failure of the amplifier to exhibit more than 15 dB of gain over its entire operating range
The omission of a time-delay circuit to prevent the amplifier from operating continuously for more than ten minutes
The inclusion of instructions for operation or modification of the amplifier in a manner contrary to the FCC Rules
D
4036 0
A1C11
Which of the following would disqualify an external RF power amplifier from being granted FCC type acceptance?
Failure to include a safety switch in the high-voltage power supply to turn off the power if the cabinet is opened
The amplifier produces 3 dB of gain for input signals between 26 MHz and 28 MHz
The inclusion of a schematic diagram and theory of operation manual that would permit an amateur to modify the amplifier
The amplifier produces 1500 watts of output power when driven by at least 50 watts of mean input power
B
4037 0
A1D01
What is the name for emissions using bandwidth-expansion modulation?
RTTY
Image
Spread spectrum
Pulse
C
4038 0
A1D02
What two spread spectrum techniques are permitted on the amateur bands?
Hybrid switching and direct frequency
Frequency switching and linear frequency
Frequency hopping and direct sequence
Logarithmic feedback and binary sequence
C
4039 0
A1D03
What is the maximum transmitter power allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?
5 watts
10 watts
100 watts
1500 watts
C
4040 0
A1D04
What is meant by auxiliary station operation?
A station operated away from its home location
Remote control of model craft
A station controlled from a point located other than at the station transmitter
Communications sent point-to-point within a system of cooperating amateur stations
D
4041 0
A1D05
What is one use for a station in auxiliary operation?
Remote control of a station in repeater operation
Remote control of model craft
Passing of international third-party communications
The retransmission of NOAA weather broadcasts
A
4042 0
A1D06
Auxiliary stations communicate with which other kind of amateur stations?
Those registered with a civil defense organization
Those within a system of cooperating amateur stations
Those in space station operation
Any kind not under manual control
B
4043 0
A1D07
On what amateur frequencies above 222.0 MHz (the 1.25-meter band) are auxiliary stations NOT allowed to operate?
What class of amateur license must one hold to be the control operator of an auxiliary station?
Any class
Technician, Technician Plus, General, Advanced or Amateur Extra
General, Advanced or Amateur Extra
Advanced or Amateur Extra
B
4045 0
A1D09
When an auxiliary station is identified in Morse code using an automatic keying device used only for identification, what is the maximum code speed permitted?
13 words per minute
30 words per minute
20 words per minute
There is no limitation
C
4046 0
A1D10
How often must an auxiliary station be identified?
At least once during each transmission
Only at the end of a series of transmissions
At the beginning of a series of transmissions
At least once every ten minutes during and at the end of activity
D
4047 0
A1D11
When may an auxiliary station be identified using a digital code?
Any time the digital code is used for at least part of the communication
Any time
Identification by digital code is not allowed
No identification is needed for digital transmissions
A
4048 0
A1E01
Which of the following geographic descriptions approximately describes "Line A"?
A line roughly parallel to, and south of, the US-Canadian border
A line roughly parallel to, and west of, the US Atlantic coastline
A line roughly parallel to, and north of, the US-Mexican border and Gulf coastline
A line roughly parallel to, and east of, the US Pacific coastline
A
4049 0
A1E02
Amateur stations may not transmit in which frequency segment if they are located north of "Line A"?
21.225-21.300 MHz
53-54 MHz
222-223 MHz
420-430 MHz
D
4050 0
A1E03
What is the National Radio Quiet Zone?
An area in Puerto Rico surrounding the Aricebo Radio Telescope
An area in New Mexico surrounding the White Sands Test Area
An Area in Maryland, West Virginia and Virginia surrounding the National Radio Astronomy Observatory
An area in Florida surrounding Cape Canaveral
C
4051 0
A1E04
Which of the following agencies is protected from interference to its operations by the National Radio Quiet Zone?
The National Radio Astronomy Observatory at Green Bank, WV
NASA's Mission Control Center in Houston, TX
The White Sands Test Area in White Sands, NM
The space shuttle launch facilities in Cape Canaveral, FL
A
4052 0
A1E05
Which communication is NOT a prohibited transmission in the Amateur Service?
Sending messages for hire or material compensation
Calling a commercial tow truck service for a breakdown on the highway
Calling your employer to see if you have any customers to contact
Sending a false distress call as a "joke"
B
4053 0
A1E06
Under what conditions may you notify other amateurs of the availability of amateur station equipment for sale or trade over the airwaves?
You are never allowed to sell or trade equipment on the air
Only if this activity does not result in a profit for you
Only if this activity is not conducted on a regular basis
Only if the equipment is FCC type accepted and has a serial number
C
4054 0
A1E07
When may amateurs accept payment for using their own stations (other than a club station) to send messages?
When employed by the FCC
When passing emergency traffic
Under no circumstances
When passing international third-party communications
C
4055 0
A1E08
When may the control operator of a repeater accept payment for providing communication services to another party?
When the repeater is operating under portable power
When the repeater is operating under local control
During Red Cross or other emergency service drills
Under no circumstances
D
4056 0
A1E09
When may an amateur station send a message to a business?
When the total money involved does not exceed $25
When the control operator is employed by the FCC or another government agency
When transmitting international third-party communications
When neither the amateur nor his or her employer has a pecuniary interest in the communications
D
4057 0
A1E10
What must an amateur obtain before installing an antenna structure more than 200 feet high?
An environmental assessment
A Special Temporary Authorization
Prior FCC approval
An effective radiated power statement
C
4058 0
A1E11
From what government agencies must you obtain permission if you wish to install an antenna structure that exceeds 200 feet above ground level?
The Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) and the Federal Communications Commission (FCC)
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) and the Federal Communications Commission (FCC)
The Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) and the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) and National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA)
A
4059 0
A1F01
What examination credit must be given to an applicant who holds an unexpired (or expired within the grace period) FCC-issued amateur operator license?
No credit
Credit for the least elements required for the license
Credit for only the telegraphy requirements of the license
Credit for only the written element requirements of the license
B
4060 0
A1F02
What ability with international Morse code must an applicant demonstrate when taking an Element 1 telegraphy examination?
To send and receive text at not less than 13 WPM
To send and receive text at not less than 5 WPM
To send and receive text at not less than 20 WPM
To send text at not less than 13 WPM
B
4061 0
A1F03
Besides all the letters of the alphabet, numerals 0-9 and the period, comma and question mark, what additional characters are used in telegraphy examinations?
The slant mark and prosigns AR, BT and SK
The slant mark, open and closed parenthesis and prosigns AR, BT and SK
The slant mark, dollar sign and prosigns AR, BT and SK
No other characters
A
4062 0
A1F04
In a telegraphy examination, how many letters of the alphabet are counted as one word?
2
5
8
10
B
4063 0
A1F05
What is the minimum age to be a Volunteer Examiner?
16
21
18
13
C
4064 0
A1F06
When may a person whose amateur operator or station license has ever been revoked or suspended be a Volunteer Examiner?
Under no circumstances
After 5 years have elapsed since the revocation or suspension
After 3 years have elapsed since the revocation or suspension
After review and subsequent approval by a VEC
A
4065 0
A1F07
When may an employee of a company engaged in the distribution of equipment used in connection with amateur station transmissions be a Volunteer Examiner?
When the employee is employed in the Amateur Radio sales part of the company
When the employee does not normally communicate with the manufacturing or distribution part of the company
When the employee serves as a Volunteer Examiner for his or her customers
When the employee does not normally communicate with the benefits and policies part of the company
B
4066 0
A1F08
Who may administer an examination for a Novice license?
Three accredited Volunteer Examiners at least 18 years old and holding at least a General class license
Three amateur operators at least 18 years old and holding at least a General class license
Any accredited Volunteer Examiner at least 21 years old and holding at least a General class license
Two amateur operators at least 21 years old and holding at least a Technician class license
A
4067 0
A1F09
When may Volunteer Examiners be compensated for their services?
Under no circumstances
When out-of-pocket expenses exceed $25
When traveling over 25 miles to the test site
When there are more than 20 applicants attending an examination session
A
4068 0
A1F10
What are the penalties that may result from fraudulently administering amateur examinations?
Suspension of amateur station license for a period not to exceed 3 months
A monetary fine not to exceed $500 for each day the offense was committed
Revocation of amateur station license and suspension of operator's license
Restriction to administering only Novice class license examinations
C
4069 0
A1F11
What are the penalties that may result from administering examinations for money or other considerations?
Suspension of amateur station license for a period not to exceed 3 months
A monetary fine not to exceed $500 for each day the offense was committed
Restriction to administering only Novice class license examinations
Revocation of amateur station license and suspension of operator's license
D
4070 0
A1F12
How soon must the administering Volunteer Examiners grade an applicant's completed examination element?
Immediately
Within 48 hours
Within 10 days
Within 24 hours
A
4071 0
A1F13
After the successful administration of an examination, within how many days must the Volunteer Examiners submit the application to their coordinating VEC?
7
10
5
30
B
4072 0
A1F14
After the successful administration of an examination, where must the Volunteer Examiners submit the application?
To the nearest FCC Field Office
To the FCC in Washington, DC
To the coordinating VEC
To the FCC in Gettysburg, PA
C
4073 0
A2A01
What is facsimile?
The transmission of characters by radioteletype that form a picture when printed
The transmission of still pictures by slow-scan television
The transmission of video by amateur television
The transmission of printed pictures for permanent display on paper
D
4074 0
A2A02
What is the modern standard scan rate for a facsimile picture transmitted by an amateur station?
240 lines per minute
50 lines per minute
150 lines per second
60 lines per second
A
4075 0
A2A03
What is the approximate transmission time per frame for a facsimile picture transmitted by an amateur station at 240 lpm?
6 minutes
3.3 minutes
6 seconds
1/60 second
B
4076 0
A2A04
What is the term for the transmission of printed pictures by radio?
Television
Facsimile
Xerography
ACSSB
B
4077 0
A2A05
In facsimile, what device converts variations in picture brightness and darkness into voltage variations?
An LED
A Hall-effect transistor
A photodetector
An optoisolator
C
4078 0
A2A06
What information is sent by slow-scan television transmissions?
Baudot or ASCII characters that form a picture when printed
Pictures for permanent display on paper
Moving pictures
Still pictures
D
4079 0
A2A07
How many lines are commonly used in each frame on an amateur slow-scan color television picture?
30 or 60
60 or 100
128 or 256
180 or 360
C
4080 0
A2A08
What is the audio frequency for black in an amateur slow-scan television picture?
2300 Hz
2000 Hz
1500 Hz
120 Hz
C
4081 0
A2A09
What is the audio frequency for white in an amateur slow-scan television picture?
120 Hz
1500 Hz
2000 Hz
2300 Hz
D
4082 0
A2A10
Why are received spread-spectrum signals so resistant to interference?
Signals not using the spectrum-spreading algorithm are suppressed in the receiver
The high power used by a spread-spectrum transmitter keeps its signal from being easily overpowered
The receiver is always equipped with a special digital signal processor (DSP) interference filter
If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies
A
4083 0
A2A11
How does the spread-spectrum technique of frequency hopping (FH) work?
If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies
If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to wait until the frequency is clear
A pseudo-random binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF carrier very rapidly in a particular sequence
The frequency of an RF carrier is changed very rapidly according to a particular pseudo-random sequence
D
4084 0
A2A12
What is the most common data rate used for HF packet communications?
48 bauds
110 bauds
300 bauds
1200 bauds
C
4085 0
A3A01
What is a sporadic-E condition?
Variations in E-region height caused by sunspot variations
A brief decrease in VHF signal levels from meteor trails at E-region height
Patches of dense ionization at E-region height
Partial tropospheric ducting at E-region height
C
4086 0
A3A02
What is the term for the propagation condition in which scattered patches of relatively dense ionization develop seasonally at E-region heights?
Auroral propagation
Ducting
Scatter
Sporadic-E
D
4087 0
A3A03
In what region of the world is sporadic-E most prevalent?
The equatorial regions
The arctic regions
The northern hemisphere
The western hemisphere
A
4088 0
A3A04
On which amateur frequency band is the extended-distance propagation effect of sporadic-E most often observed?
2 meters
6 meters
20 meters
160 meters
B
4089 0
A3A05
What effect does auroral activity have upon radio communications?
The readability of SSB signals increases
FM communications are clearer
CW signals have a clearer tone
CW signals have a fluttery tone
D
4090 0
A3A06
What is the cause of auroral activity?
A high sunspot level
A low sunspot level
The emission of charged particles from the sun
Meteor showers concentrated in the northern latitudes
C
4091 0
A3A07
In the northern hemisphere, in which direction should a directional antenna be pointed to take maximum advantage of auroral propagation?
South
North
East
West
B
4092 0
A3A08
Where in the ionosphere does auroral activity occur?
At F-region height
In the equatorial band
At D-region height
At E-region height
D
4093 0
A3A09
Which emission modes are best for auroral propagation?
CW and SSB
SSB and FM
FM and CW
RTTY and AM
A
4094 0
A3A10
As the frequency of a signal is increased, how does its ground-wave propagation distance change?
It increases
It decreases
It stays the same
Radio waves don't propagate along the Earth's surface
B
4095 0
A3A11
What typical polarization does ground-wave propagation have?
Vertical
Horizontal
Circular
Elliptical
A
4096 0
A3B01
What causes selective fading?
Small changes in beam heading at the receiving station
Phase differences between radio-wave components of the same transmission, as experienced at the receiving station
Large changes in the height of the ionosphere at the receiving station ordinarily occurring shortly after either sunrise or sunset
Time differences between the receiving and transmitting stations
B
4097 0
A3B02
What is the propagation effect called that causes selective fading between received wave components of the same transmission?
Faraday rotation
Diversity reception
Phase differences
Phase shift
C
4098 0
A3B03
Which emission modes suffer the most from selective fading?
CW and SSB
FM and double sideband AM
SSB and AMTOR
SSTV and CW
B
4099 0
A3B04
How does the bandwidth of a transmitted signal affect selective fading?
It is more pronounced at wide bandwidths
It is more pronounced at narrow bandwidths
It is the same for both narrow and wide bandwidths
The receiver bandwidth determines the selective fading effect
A
4100 0
A3B05
Why does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?
E-region skip
D-region skip
Auroral skip
Radio waves may be bent
D
4101 0
A3B06
How much farther does the VHF/UHF radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?
By approximately 15% of the distance
By approximately twice the distance
By approximately one-half the distance
By approximately four times the distance
A
4102 0
A3B07
For a 3-element Yagi antenna with horizontally mounted elements, how does the main lobe takeoff angle vary with height above flat ground?
It increases with increasing height
It decreases with increasing height
It does not vary with height
It depends on E-region height, not antenna height
B
4103 0
A3B08
For a 3-element Yagi antenna with horizontally mounted elements, how does the main lobe takeoff angle vary with a downward slope of the ground (moving away from the antenna)?
It increases as the slope gets steeper
It decreases as the slope gets steeper
It does not depend on the ground slope
It depends on F-region height, not ground slope
B
4104 0
A3B09
What is the name of the high-angle wave in HF propagation that travels for some distance within the F2 region?
Oblique-angle ray
Pedersen ray
Ordinary ray
Heaviside ray
B
4105 0
A3B10
Excluding enhanced propagation, what is the approximate range of normal VHF propagation?
1000 miles
500 miles
1500 miles
2000 miles
B
4106 0
A3B11
What effect is usually responsible for propagating a VHF signal over 500 miles?
D-region absorption
Faraday rotation
Tropospheric ducting
Moonbounce
C
4107 0
A3B12
What happens to an electromagnetic wave as it encounters air molecules and other particles?
The wave loses kinetic energy
The wave gains kinetic energy
An aurora is created
Nothing happens because the waves have no physical substance
A
4108 0
A4A01
What is a frequency standard?
A frequency chosen by a net control operator for net operations
A device used to produce a highly accurate reference frequency
A device for accurately measuring frequency to within 1 Hz
A device used to generate wide-band random frequencies
B
4109 0
A4A02
What does a frequency counter do?
It makes frequency measurements
It produces a reference frequency
It measures FM transmitter deviation
It generates broad-band white noise
A
4110 0
A4A03
If a 100 Hz signal is fed to the horizontal input of an oscilloscope and a 150 Hz signal is fed to the vertical input, what type of Lissajous figure should be displayed on the screen?
A looping pattern with 100 loops horizontally and 150 loops vertically
A rectangular pattern 100 mm wide and 150 mm high
A looping pattern with 2 loops horizontally and 3 loops vertically
An oval pattern 100 mm wide and 150 mm high
C
4111 0
A4A04
What is a dip-meter?
A field-strength meter
An SWR meter
A variable LC oscillator with metered feedback current
A marker generator
C
4112 0
A4A05
What does a dip-meter do?
It accurately indicates signal strength
It measures frequency accurately
It measures transmitter output power accurately
It gives an indication of the resonant frequency of a circuit
D
4113 0
A4A06
How does a dip-meter function?
Reflected waves at a specific frequency desensitize a detector coil
Power coupled from an oscillator causes a decrease in metered current
Power from a transmitter cancels feedback current
Harmonics from an oscillator cause an increase in resonant circuit Q
B
4114 0
A4A07
What two ways could a dip-meter be used in an amateur station?
To measure resonant frequency of antenna traps and to measure percentage of modulation
To measure antenna resonance and to measure percentage of modulation
To measure antenna resonance and to measure antenna impedance
To measure resonant frequency of antenna traps and to measure a tuned circuit resonant frequency
D
4115 0
A4A08
What types of coupling occur between a dip-meter and a tuned circuit being checked?
Resistive and inductive
Inductive and capacitive
Resistive and capacitive
Strong field
B
4116 0
A4A09
For best accuracy, how tightly should a dip-meter be coupled with a tuned circuit being checked?
As loosely as possible
As tightly as possible
First loosely, then tightly
With a jumper wire between the meter and the circuit to be checked
A
4117 0
A4A10
What happens in a dip-meter when it is too tightly coupled with a tuned circuit being checked?
Harmonics are generated
A less accurate reading results
Cross modulation occurs
Intermodulation distortion occurs
B
4118 0
A4A11
What circuit construction technique uses leadless components mounted between circuit board pads?
Raised mounting
Integrated circuit mounting
Hybrid device mounting
Surface mounting
D
4119 0
A4B01
What factors limit the accuracy, frequency response and stability of a D'Arsonval-type meter?
Calibration, coil impedance and meter size
Calibration, mechanical tolerance and coil impedance
Coil impedance, electromagnet voltage and movement mass
Calibration, series resistance and electromagnet current
B
4120 0
A4B02
What factors limit the accuracy, frequency response and stability of an oscilloscope?
Accuracy and linearity of the time base and the linearity and bandwidth of the deflection amplifiers
Tube face voltage increments and deflection amplifier voltage
Accuracy and linearity of the time base and tube face voltage increments
Deflection amplifier output impedance and tube face frequency increments
A
4121 0
A4B03
How can the frequency response of an oscilloscope be improved?
By using a triggered sweep and a crystal oscillator as the timebase
By using a crystal oscillator as the time base and increasing the vertical sweep rate
By increasing the vertical sweep rate and the horizontal amplifier frequency response
By increasing the horizontal sweep rate and the vertical amplifier frequency response
D
4122 0
A4B04
What factors limit the accuracy, frequency response and stability of a frequency counter?
Number of digits in the readout, speed of the logic and time base stability
Time base accuracy, speed of the logic and time base stability
Time base accuracy, temperature coefficient of the logic and timebase stability
Number of digits in the readout, external frequency reference and temperature coefficient of the logic
B
4123 0
A4B05
How can the accuracy of a frequency counter be improved?
By using slower digital logic
By improving the accuracy of the frequency response
By increasing the accuracy of the time base
By using faster digital logic
C
4124 0
A4B06
If a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/- 1.0 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?
165.2 Hz
14.652 kHz
146.52 Hz
1.4652 MHz
C
4125 0
A4B07
If a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?
14.652 Hz
0.1 MHz
1.4652 Hz
1.4652 kHz
A
4126 0
A4B08
If a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/- 10 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?
146.52 Hz
10 Hz
146.52 kHz
1465.20 Hz
D
4127 0
A4B09
If a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/- 1.0 ppm reads 432,100,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?
43.21 MHz
10 Hz
1.0 MHz
432.1 Hz
D
4128 0
A4B10
If a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm reads 432,100,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?
43.21 Hz
0.1 MHz
432.1 Hz
0.2 MHz
A
4129 0
A4B11
If a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/- 10 ppm reads 432,100,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?
10 MHz
10 Hz
4321 Hz
432.1 Hz
C
4130 0
A4C01
What is the effect of excessive phase noise in a receiver local oscillator?
It limits the receiver ability to receive strong signals
It reduces the receiver sensitivity
It decreases the receiver third-order intermodulation distortion dynamic range
It allows strong signals on nearby frequencies to interfere with reception of weak signals
D
4131 0
A4C02
What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency?
Desensitization
Quieting
Cross-modulation interference
Squelch gain rollback
A
4132 0
A4C03
What causes receiver desensitization?
Audio gain adjusted too low
Strong adjacent-channel signals
Squelch gain adjusted too high
Squelch gain adjusted too low
B
4133 0
A4C04
What is one way receiver desensitization can be reduced?
Shield the receiver from the transmitter causing the problem
Increase the transmitter audio gain
Decrease the receiver squelch gain
Increase the receiver bandwidth
A
4134 0
A4C05
What is the capture effect?
All signals on a frequency are demodulated by an FM receiver
All signals on a frequency are demodulated by an AM receiver
The strongest signal received is the only demodulated signal
The weakest signal received is the only demodulated signal
C
4135 0
A4C06
What is the term for the blocking of one FM-phone signal by another stronger FM-phone signal?
Desensitization
Cross-modulation interference
Capture effect
Frequency discrimination
C
4136 0
A4C07
With which emission type is capture effect most pronounced?
FM
SSB
AM
CW
A
4137 0
A4C08
What is meant by the noise floor of a receiver?
The weakest signal that can be detected under noisy atmospheric conditions
The amount of phase noise generated by the receiver local oscillator
The minimum level of noise that will overload the receiver RF amplifier stage
The weakest signal that can be detected above the receiver internal noise
D
4138 0
A4C09
What is the blocking dynamic range of a receiver that has an 8-dB noise figure and an IF bandwidth of 500 Hz if the blocking level (1-dBcompression point) is -20 dBm?
-119 dBm
119 dB
146 dB
-146 dBm
B
4139 0
A4C10
What part of a superheterodyne receiver determines the image rejection ratio of the receiver?
Product detector
RF amplifier
AGC loop
IF filter
D
4140 0
A4C11
If you measured the MDS of a receiver, what would you be measuring?
The meter display sensitivity (MDS), or the responsiveness of the receiver S-meter to all signals
The minimum discernible signal (MDS), or the weakest signal that the receiver can detect
The minimum distorting signal (MDS), or the strongest signal the receiver can detect without overloading
The maximum detectable spectrum (MDS), or the lowest to highest frequency range of the receiver
B
4141 0
A4D01
If the signals of two transmitters mix together in one or both of their final amplifiers and unwanted signals at the sum and difference frequencies of the original signals are generated, what is this called?
Amplifier desensitization
Neutralization
Adjacent channel interference
Intermodulation interference
D
4142 0
A4D02
How does intermodulation interference between two repeater transmitters usually occur?
When the signals from the transmitters are reflected out of phase from airplanes passing overhead
When they are in close proximity and the signals mix in one or both of their final amplifiers
When they are in close proximity and the signals cause feedback in one or both of their final amplifiers
When the signals from the transmitters are reflected in phase from airplanes passing overhead
B
4143 0
A4D03
How can intermodulation interference between two repeater transmitters in close proximity often be reduced or eliminated?
By using a Class C final amplifier with high driving power
By installing a terminated circulator or ferrite isolator in the feed line to the transmitter and duplexer
By installing a band-pass filter in the antenna feed line
By installing a low-pass filter in the antenna feed line
B
4144 0
A4D04
What is cross-modulation interference?
Interference between two transmitters of different modulation type
Interference caused by audio rectification in the receiver preamp
Harmonic distortion of the transmitted signal
Modulation from an unwanted signal is heard in addition to the desired signal
D
4145 0
A4D05
What is the term used to refer to the condition where the signals from a very strong station are superimposed on other signals being received?
Intermodulation distortion
Cross-modulation interference
Receiver quieting
Capture effect
B
4146 0
A4D06
How can cross-modulation in a receiver be reduced?
By installing a filter at the receiver
By using a better antenna
By increasing the receiver RF gain while decreasing the AF gain
By adjusting the passband tuning
A
4147 0
A4D07
What is the result of cross-modulation?
A decrease in modulation level of transmitted signals
Receiver quieting
The modulation of an unwanted signal is heard on the desired signal
Inverted sidebands in the final stage of the amplifier
C
4148 0
A4D08
What causes intermodulation in an electronic circuit?
Too little gain
Lack of neutralization
Nonlinear circuits or devices
Positive feedback
C
4149 0
A4D09
If a receiver tuned to 146.70 MHz receives an intermodulation-product signal whenever a nearby transmitter transmits on 146.52 MHz, what are the two most likely frequencies for the other interfering signal?
146.34 MHz and 146.61 MHz
146.88 MHz and 146.34 MHz
146.10 MHz and 147.30 MHz
73.35 MHz and 239.40 MHz
A
4150 0
A4D10
If a television receiver suffers from cross modulation when a nearby amateur transmitter is operating at 14 MHz, which of the following cures might be effective?
A low-pass filter attached to the output of the amateur transmitter
A high-pass filter attached to the output of the amateur transmitter
A low-pass filter attached to the input of the television receiver
A high-pass filter attached to the input of the television receiver
D
4151 0
A4D11
Which of the following is an example of intermodulation distortion?
Receiver blocking
Splatter from an SSB transmitter
Overdeviation of an FM transmitter
Excessive 2nd-harmonic output from a transmitter
B
4152 0
A5A01
What can cause the voltage across reactances in series to be larger than the voltage applied to them?
Resonance
Capacitance
Conductance
Resistance
A
4153 0
A5A02
What is resonance in an electrical circuit?
The highest frequency that will pass current
The lowest frequency that will pass current
The frequency at which capacitive reactance equals inductive reactance
The frequency at which power factor is at a minimum
C
4154 0
A5A03
What are the conditions for resonance to occur in an electrical circuit?
The power factor is at a minimum
Inductive and capacitive reactances are equal
The square root of the sum of the capacitive and inductive reactance is equal to the resonant frequency
The square root of the product of the capacitive and inductive reactance is equal to the resonant frequency
B
4155 0
A5A04
When the inductive reactance of an electrical circuit equals its capacitive reactance, what is this condition called?
Reactive quiescence
High Q
Reactive equilibrium
Resonance
D
4156 0
A5A05
What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series R-L-C circuit at resonance?
High, as compared to the circuit resistance
Approximately equal to capacitive reactance
Approximately equal to inductive reactance
Approximately equal to circuit resistance
D
4157 0
A5A06
What is the magnitude of the impedance of a circuit with a resistor, an inductor and a capacitor all in parallel, at resonance?
Approximately equal to circuit resistance
Approximately equal to inductive reactance
Low, as compared to the circuit resistance
Approximately equal to capacitive reactance
A
4158 0
A5A07
What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a series R-L-C circuit at resonance?
It is at a minimum
It is at a maximum
It is DC
It is zero
B
4159 0
A5A08
What is the magnitude of the circulating current within the components of a parallel L-C circuit at resonance?
It is at a minimum
It is at a maximum
It is DC
It is zero
B
4160 0
A5A09
What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a parallel R-L-C circuit at resonance?
It is at a minimum
It is at a maximum
It is DC
It is zero
A
4161 0
A5A10
What is the relationship between the current through a resonant circuit and the voltage across the circuit?
The voltage leads the current by 90 degrees
The current leads the voltage by 90 degrees
The voltage and current are in phase
The voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
C
4162 0
A5A11
What is the relationship between the current into (or out of) a parallel resonant circuit and the voltage across the circuit?
The voltage leads the current by 90 degrees
The current leads the voltage by 90 degrees
The voltage and current are in phase
The voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
C
4163 0
A5B01
What is the resonant frequency of a series R-L-C circuit if R is 47 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads?
79.6 MHz
1.78 MHz
3.56 MHz
7.96 MHz
C
4164 0
A5B02
What is the resonant frequency of a series R-L-C circuit if R is 47 ohms, L is 40 microhenrys and C is 200 picofarads?
1.99 kHz
1.78 MHz
1.99 MHz
1.78 kHz
B
4165 0
A5B03
What is the resonant frequency of a series R-L-C circuit if R is 47 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?
3.18 MHz
3.18 kHz
7.12 kHz
7.12 MHz
D
4166 0
A5B04
What is the resonant frequency of a series R-L-C circuit if R is 47 ohms, L is 25 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?
10.1 MHz
63.7 MHz
10.1 kHz
63.7 kHz
A
4167 0
A5B05
What is the resonant frequency of a series R-L-C circuit if R is 47 ohms, L is 3 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads?
13.1 MHz
14.5 MHz
14.5 kHz
13.1 kHz
B
4168 0
A5B06
What is the resonant frequency of a series R-L-C circuit if R is 47 ohms, L is 4 microhenrys and C is 20 picofarads?
19.9 kHz
17.8 kHz
19.9 MHz
17.8 MHz
D
4169 0
A5B07
What is the resonant frequency of a series R-L-C circuit if R is 47 ohms, L is 8 microhenrys and C is 7 picofarads?
2.84 MHz
28.4 MHz
21.3 MHz
2.13 MHz
C
4170 0
A5B08
What is the resonant frequency of a series R-L-C circuit if R is 47 ohms, L is 3 microhenrys and C is 15 picofarads?
23.7 MHz
23.7 kHz
35.4 kHz
35.4 MHz
A
4171 0
A5B09
What is the resonant frequency of a series R-L-C circuit if R is 47 ohms, L is 4 microhenrys and C is 8 picofarads?
28.1 kHz
28.1 MHz
49.7 MHz
49.7 kHz
B
4172 0
A5B10
What is the resonant frequency of a series R-L-C circuit if R is 47 ohms, L is 1 microhenry and C is 9 picofarads?
17.7 MHz
17.7 kHz
53.1 kHz
53.1 MHz
D
4173 0
A5B11
What is the value of capacitance (C) in a series R-L-C circuit if the circuit resonant frequency is 14.25 MHz and L is 2.84 microhenrys?
2.2 microfarads
254 microfarads
44 picofarads
3933 picofarads
C
4174 0
A5C01
What is the resonant frequency of a parallel R-L-C circuit if R is 4.7 kilohms, L is 1 microhenry and C is 10 picofarads?
50.3 MHz
15.9 MHz
15.9 kHz
50.3 kHz
A
4175 0
A5C02
What is the resonant frequency of a parallel R-L-C circuit if R is 4.7 kilohms, L is 2 microhenrys and C is 15 picofarads?
29.1 kHz
29.1 MHz
5.31 MHz
5.31 kHz
B
4176 0
A5C03
What is the resonant frequency of a parallel R-L-C circuit if R is 4.7 kilohms, L is 5 microhenrys and C is 9 picofarads?
23.7 kHz
3.54 kHz
23.7 MHz
3.54 MHz
C
4177 0
A5C04
What is the resonant frequency of a parallel R-L-C circuit if R is 4.7 kilohms, L is 2 microhenrys and C is 30 picofarads?
2.65 kHz
20.5 kHz
2.65 MHz
20.5 MHz
D
4178 0
A5C05
What is the resonant frequency of a parallel R-L-C circuit if R is 4.7 kilohms, L is 15 microhenrys and C is 5 picofarads?
18.4 MHz
2.12 MHz
18.4 kHz
2.12 kHz
A
4179 0
A5C06
What is the resonant frequency of a parallel R-L-C circuit if R is 4.7 kilohms, L is 3 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads?
1.33 kHz
14.5 MHz
1.33 MHz
14.5 kHz
B
4180 0
A5C07
What is the resonant frequency of a parallel R-L-C circuit if R is 4.7 kilohms, L is 40 microhenrys and C is 6 picofarads?
6.63 MHz
6.63 kHz
10.3 MHz
10.3 kHz
C
4181 0
A5C08
What is the resonant frequency of a parallel R-L-C circuit if R is 4.7 kilohms, L is 10 microhenrys and C is 50 picofarads?
3.18 MHz
3.18 kHz
7.12 kHz
7.12 MHz
D
4182 0
A5C09
What is the resonant frequency of a parallel R-L-C circuit if R is 4.7 kilohms, L is 200 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?
3.56 MHz
7.96 kHz
3.56 kHz
7.96 MHz
A
4183 0
A5C10
What is the resonant frequency of a parallel R-L-C circuit if R is 4.7 kilohms, L is 90 microhenrys and C is 100 picofarads?
1.77 MHz
1.68 MHz
1.77 kHz
1.68 kHz
B
4184 0
A5C11
What is the value of inductance (L) in a parallel R-L-C circuit if the circuit resonant frequency is 14.25 MHz and C is 44 picofarads?
253.8 millihenrys
3.9 millihenrys
0.353 microhenrys
2.8 microhenrys
D
4185 0
A5D01
What is the result of skin effect?
As frequency increases, RF current flows in a thinner layer of the conductor, closer to the surface
As frequency decreases, RF current flows in a thinner layer of the conductor, closer to the surface
Thermal effects on the surface of the conductor increase the impedance
Thermal effects on the surface of the conductor decrease the impedance
A
4186 0
A5D02
What effect causes most of an RF current to flow along the surface of a conductor?
Layer effect
Seeburg effect
Skin effect
Resonance effect
C
4187 0
A5D03
Where does almost all RF current flow in a conductor?
Along the surface of the conductor
In the center of the conductor
In a magnetic field around the conductor
In a magnetic field in the center of the conductor
A
4188 0
A5D04
Why does most of an RF current flow within a few thousandths of an inch of its conductor's surface?
Because a conductor has AC resistance due to self-inductance
Because the RF resistance of a conductor is much less than the DC resistance
Because of the heating of the conductor's interior
Because of skin effect
D
4189 0
A5D05
Why is the resistance of a conductor different for RF currents than for direct currents?
Because the insulation conducts current at high frequencies
Because of the Heisenburg Effect
Because of skin effect
Because conductors are non-linear devices
C
4190 0
A5D06
What device is used to store electrical energy in an electrostatic field?
A battery
A transformer
A capacitor
An inductor
C
4191 0
A5D07
What unit measures electrical energy stored in an electrostatic field?
Coulomb
Joule
Watt
Volt
B
4192 0
A5D08
What is a magnetic field?
Current through the space around a permanent magnet
The space around a conductor, through which a magnetic force acts
The space between the plates of a charged capacitor, through which a magnetic force acts
The force that drives current through a resistor
B
4193 0
A5D09
In what direction is the magnetic field oriented about a conductor in relation to the direction of electron flow?
In the same direction as the current
In a direction opposite to the current
In all directions; omnidirectional
In a direction determined by the left-hand rule
D
4194 0
A5D10
What determines the strength of a magnetic field around a conductor?
The resistance divided by the current
The ratio of the current to the resistance
The diameter of the conductor
The amount of current
D
4195 0
A5D11
What is the term for energy that is stored in an electromagnetic or electrostatic field?
Amperes-joules
Potential energy
Joules-coulombs
Kinetic energy
B
4196 0
A5E01
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 1.8 MHz and a Q of 95?
18.9 kHz
1.89 kHz
189 Hz
58.7 kHz
A
4197 0
A5E02
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 3.6 MHz and a Q of 218?
58.7 kHz
606 kHz
47.3 kHz
16.5 kHz
D
4198 0
A5E03
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150?
211 kHz
16.5 kHz
47.3 kHz
21.1 kHz
C
4199 0
A5E04
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 12.8 MHz and a Q of 218?
21.1 kHz
27.9 kHz
17 kHz
58.7 kHz
D
4200 0
A5E05
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 14.25 MHz and a Q of 150?
95 kHz
10.5 kHz
10.5 MHz
17 kHz
A
4201 0
A5E06
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 21.15 MHz and a Q of 95?
4.49 kHz
44.9 kHz
22.3 kHz
222.6 kHz
D
4202 0
A5E07
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 10.1 MHz and a Q of 225?
4.49 kHz
44.9 kHz
22.3 kHz
223 kHz
B
4203 0
A5E08
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 18.1 MHz and a Q of 195?
92.8 kHz
10.8 kHz
22.3 kHz
44.9 kHz
A
4204 0
A5E09
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 3.7 MHz and a Q of 118?
22.3 kHz
76.2 kHz
31.4 kHz
10.8 kHz
C
4205 0
A5E10
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 14.25 MHz and a Q of 187?
22.3 kHz
10.8 kHz
76.2 kHz
13.1 kHz
C
4206 0
A5E11
What term describes the frequency range over which the circuit response is no more than 3 dB below the peak response?
Resonance
Half-power bandwidth
Circuit Q
2:1 bandwidth
B
4207 0
A5F01
What is the Q of a parallel R-L-C circuit if the resonant frequency is 14.128 MHz, L is 2.7 microhenrys and R is 18 kilohms?
75.1
7.51
71.5
0.013
A
4208 0
A5F02
What is the Q of a parallel R-L-C circuit if the resonant frequency is 14.128 MHz, L is 4.7 microhenrys and R is 18 kilohms?
4.31
43.1
13.3
0.023
B
4209 0
A5F03
What is the Q of a parallel R-L-C circuit if the resonant frequency is 4.468 MHz, L is 47 microhenrys and R is 180 ohms?
0.00735
7.35
0.136
13.3
C
4210 0
A5F04
What is the Q of a parallel R-L-C circuit if the resonant frequency is 14.225 MHz, L is 3.5 microhenrys and R is 10 kilohms?
7.35
0.0319
71.5
31.9
D
4211 0
A5F05
What is the Q of a parallel R-L-C circuit if the resonant frequency is 7.125 MHz, L is 8.2 microhenrys and R is 1 kilohm?
36.8
0.273
0.368
2.73
D
4212 0
A5F06
What is the Q of a parallel R-L-C circuit if the resonant frequency is 7.125 MHz, L is 10.1 microhenrys and R is 100 ohms?
0.221
4.52
0.00452
22.1
A
4213 0
A5F07
What is the Q of a parallel R-L-C circuit if the resonant frequency is 7.125 MHz, L is 12.6 microhenrys and R is 22 kilohms?
22.1
39
25.6
0.0256
B
4214 0
A5F08
What is the Q of a parallel R-L-C circuit if the resonant frequency is 3.625 MHz, L is 3 microhenrys and R is 2.2 kilohms?
0.031
32.2
31.1
25.6
B
4215 0
A5F09
What is the Q of a parallel R-L-C circuit if the resonant frequency is 3.625 MHz, L is 42 microhenrys and R is 220 ohms?
23
0.00435
4.35
0.23
D
4216 0
A5F10
What is the Q of a parallel R-L-C circuit if the resonant frequency is 3.625 MHz, L is 43 microhenrys and R is 1.8 kilohms?
1.84
0.543
54.3
23
A
4217 0
A5F11
Why is a resistor often included in a parallel resonant circuit?
To increase the Q and decrease the skin effect
To decrease the Q and increase the resonant frequency
To decrease the Q and increase the bandwidth
To increase the Q and decrease the bandwidth
C
4218 0
A5G01
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 100 ohms?
36.9 degrees with the voltage leading the current
53.1 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
36.9 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
53.1 degrees with the voltage leading the current
A
4219 0
A5G02
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 50 ohms?
14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
B
4220 0
A5G03
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 500 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 250 ohms?
68.2 degrees with the voltage leading the current
14.1 degrees with the voltage leading the current
14.1 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
68.2 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
C
4221 0
A5G04
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 75 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 100 ohms?
76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
B
4222 0
A5G05
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 50 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 25 ohms?
76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
D
4223 0
A5G06
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 75 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 50 ohms?
76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
C
4224 0
A5G07
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 100 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 75 ohms?
14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
A
4225 0
A5G08
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 250 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 500 ohms?
81.47 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
81.47 degrees with the voltage leading the current
14.04 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
14.04 degrees with the voltage leading the current
D
4226 0
A5G09
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 50 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 75 ohms?
76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
D
4227 0
A5G10
What is the relationship between the current through and the voltage across a capacitor?
Voltage and current are in phase
Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
Current leads voltage by 90 degrees
D
4228 0
A5G11
What is the relationship between the current through an inductor and the voltage across an inductor?
Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
Current leads voltage by 90 degrees
Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
Voltage and current are in phase
A
4229 0
A5H01
What is reactive power?
Wattless, nonproductive power
Power consumed in wire resistance in an inductor
Power lost because of capacitor leakage
Power consumed in circuit Q
A
4230 0
A5H02
What is the term for an out-of-phase, nonproductive power associated with inductors and capacitors?
Effective power
True power
Peak envelope power
Reactive power
D
4231 0
A5H03
In a circuit that has both inductors and capacitors, what happens to reactive power?
It is dissipated as heat in the circuit
It goes back and forth between magnetic and electric fields, but is not dissipated
It is dissipated as kinetic energy in the circuit
It is dissipated in the formation of inductive and capacitive fields
B
4232 0
A5H04
In a circuit where the AC voltage and current are out of phase, how can the true power be determined?
By multiplying the apparent power times the power factor
By subtracting the apparent power from the power factor
By dividing the apparent power by the power factor
By multiplying the RMS voltage times the RMS current
A
4233 0
A5H05
What is the power factor of an R-L circuit having a 60 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?
1.414
0.866
0.5
1.73
C
4234 0
A5H06
What is the power factor of an R-L circuit having a 45 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?
0.866
1.0
0.5
0.707
D
4235 0
A5H07
What is the power factor of an R-L circuit having a 30 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?
1.73
0.5
0.866
0.577
C
4236 0
A5H08
How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.2 if the input is 100-V AC at 4 amperes?
400 watts
80 watts
2000 watts
50 watts
B
4237 0
A5H09
How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.6 if the input is 200-V AC at 5 amperes?
200 watts
1000 watts
1600 watts
600 watts
D
4238 0
A5H10
How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.71 if the apparent power is 500 watts?
704 W
355 W
252 W
1.42 mW
B
4239 0
A5H11
Why would the power used in a circuit be less than the product of the magnitudes of the AC voltage and current?
Because there is a phase angle greater than zero between the current and voltage
Because there are only resistances in the circuit
Because there are no reactances in the circuit
Because there is a phase angle equal to zero between the current and voltage
A
4240 0
A5I01
What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 50 watts transmitter power output, 4-dB feed line loss, 2-dB duplexer loss, 1-dB circulator loss and 6-dBd antenna gain?
199 watts
39.7 watts
45 watts
62.9 watts
B
4241 0
A5I02
What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 50 watts transmitter power output, 5-dB feed line loss, 3-dB duplexer loss, 1-dB circulator loss and 7-dBd antenna gain?
79.2 watts
315 watts
31.5 watts
40.5 watts
C
4242 0
A5I03
What is the effective radiated power of a station with 75 watts transmitter power output, 4-dB feed line loss and 10-dBd antenna gain?
600 watts
75 watts
150 watts
299 watts
D
4243 0
A5I04
What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 75 watts transmitter power output, 5-dB feed line loss, 3-dB duplexer loss, 1-dB circulator loss and 6-dBd antenna gain?
37.6 watts
237 watts
150 watts
23.7 watts
A
4244 0
A5I05
What is the effective radiated power of a station with 100 watts transmitter power output, 1-dB feed line loss and 6-dBd antenna gain?
350 watts
500 watts
20 watts
316 watts
D
4245 0
A5I06
What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 100 watts transmitter power output, 5-dB feed line loss, 3-dB duplexer loss, 1-dB circulator loss and 10-dBd antenna gain?
794 watts
126 watts
79.4 watts
1260 watts
B
4246 0
A5I07
What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 120 watts transmitter power output, 5-dB feed line loss, 3-dB duplexer loss, 1-dB circulator loss and 6-dBd antenna gain?
601 watts
240 watts
60 watts
79 watts
C
4247 0
A5I08
What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 150 watts transmitter power output, 2-dB feed line loss, 2.2-dB duplexer loss and 7-dBd antenna gain?
1977 watts
78.7 watts
420 watts
286 watts
D
4248 0
A5I09
What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4-dB feed line loss, 3.2-dB duplexer loss, 0.8-dB circulator loss and 10-dBd antenna gain?
317 watts
2000 watts
126 watts
300 watts
A
4249 0
A5I10
What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 2-dB feed line loss, 2.8-dB duplexer loss, 1.2-dB circulator loss and 7-dBd antenna gain?
159 watts
252 watts
632 watts
63.2 watts
B
4250 0
A5I11
What term describes station output (including the transmitter, antenna and everything in between), when considering transmitter power and system gains and losses?
Power factor
Half-power bandwidth
Effective radiated power
Apparent power
C
4251 0
A5J01
In Figure A5-1, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and current as when V1 is 8 volts, R1 is 8 kilohms, and R2 is 8kilohms?
R3 = 4 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts
R3 = 4 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts
R3 = 16 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts
R3 = 16 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts
B
4252 0
Figure A5-1
A51.BM_
A5J02
In Figure A5-1, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and current as when V1 is 8 volts, R1 is 16 kilohms, and R2 is 8kilohms?
R3 = 24 kilohms and V2 = 5.33 volts
R3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts
R3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 2.67 volts
R3 = 24 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts
C
4253 0
Figure A5-1
A51.BM_
A5J03
In Figure A5-1, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and current as when V1 is 8 volts, R1 is 8 kilohms, and R2 is 16kilohms?
R3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 5.33 volts
R3 = 8 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts
R3 = 24 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts
R3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts
A
4254 0
Figure A5-1
A51.BM_
A5J04
In Figure A5-1, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and current as when V1 is 10 volts, R1 is 10 kilohms, and R2 is 10kilohms?
R3 = 10 kilohms and V2 = 5 volts
R3 = 20 kilohms and V2 = 5 volts
R3 = 20 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts
R3 = 5 kilohms and V2 = 5 volts
D
4255 0
Figure A5-1
A51.BM_
A5J05
In Figure A5-1, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and current as when V1 is 10 volts, R1 is 20 kilohms, and R2 is 10kilohms?
R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts
R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts
R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 3.33 volts
R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 3.33 volts
C
4256 0
Figure A5-1
A51.BM_
A5J06
In Figure A5-1, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and current as when V1 is 10 volts, R1 is 10 kilohms, and R2 is 20kilohms?
R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 6.67 volts
R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts
R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 6.67 volts
R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts
A
4257 0
Figure A5-1
A51.BM_
A5J07
In Figure A5-1, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and current as when V1 is 12 volts, R1 is 10 kilohms, and R2 is 10kilohms?
R3 = 20 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts
R3 = 5 kilohms and V2 = 6 volts
R3 = 5 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts
R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 6 volts
B
4258 0
Figure A5-1
A51.BM_
A5J08
In Figure A5-1, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and current as when V1 is 12 volts, R1 is 20 kilohms, and R2 is 10kilohms?
R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts
R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts
R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts
R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts
B
4259 0
Figure A5-1
A51.BM_
A5J09
In Figure A5-1, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and current as when V1 is 12 volts, R1 is 10 kilohms, and R2 is 20kilohms?
R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts
R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts
R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts
R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts
C
4260 0
Figure A5-1
A51.BM_
A5J10
In Figure A5-1, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and current as when V1 is 12 volts, R1 is 20 kilohms, and R2 is 20kilohms?
R3 = 10 kilohms and V2 = 6 volts
R3 = 40 kilohms and V2 = 6 volts
R3 = 40 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts
R3 = 10 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts
A
4261 0
Figure A5-1
A51.BM_
A5J11
What circuit principle describes the replacement of any complex two-terminal network of voltage sources and resistances with a single voltage source and a single resistor?
Ohm's Law
Kirchhoff's Law
Laplace's Theorem
Thevenin's Theorem
D
4262 0
A6A01
What two elements widely used in semiconductor devices exhibit both metallic and nonmetallic characteristics?
Silicon and gold
Silicon and germanium
Galena and germanium
Galena and bismuth
B
4263 0
A6A02
In what application is gallium arsenide used as a semiconductor material in preference to germanium or silicon?
In bipolar transistors
In high-power circuits
At microwave frequencies
At very low frequencies
C
4264 0
A6A03
What type of semiconductor material might be produced by adding some antimony atoms to germanium crystals?
J-type
MOS-type
N-type
P-type
C
4265 0
A6A04
What type of semiconductor material might be produced by adding some gallium atoms to silicon crystals?
N-type
P-type
MOS-type
J-type
B
4266 0
A6A05
What type of semiconductor material contains more free electrons than pure germanium or silicon crystals?
N-type
P-type
Bipolar
Insulated gate
A
4267 0
A6A06
What type of semiconductor material might be produced by adding some arsenic atoms to silicon crystals?
N-type
P-type
MOS-type
J-type
A
4268 0
A6A07
What type of semiconductor material might be produced by adding some indium atoms to germanium crystals?
J-type
MOS-type
N-type
P-type
D
4269 0
A6A08
What type of semiconductor material contains fewer free electrons than pure germanium or silicon crystals?
N-type
P-type
Superconductor-type
Bipolar-type
B
4270 0
A6A09
What are the majority charge carriers in P-type semiconductor material?
Free neutrons
Free protons
Holes
Free electrons
C
4271 0
A6A10
What are the majority charge carriers in N-type semiconductor material?
Holes
Free electrons
Free protons
Free neutrons
B
4272 0
A6A11
What is the name given to an impurity atom that provides excess electrons to a semiconductor crystal structure?
Acceptor impurity
Donor impurity
P-type impurity
Conductor impurity
B
4273 0
A6A12
What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a semiconductor crystal structure?
Insulator impurity
N-type impurity
Acceptor impurity
Donor impurity
C
4274 0
A6B01
What is the principal characteristic of a Zener diode?
A constant current under conditions of varying voltage
A constant voltage under conditions of varying current
A negative resistance region
An internal capacitance that varies with the applied voltage
B
4275 0
A6B02
In Figure A6-1, what is the schematic symbol for a Zener diode?
7
6
4
3
D
4276 0
Figure A6-1
A61.BM_
A6B03
What is the principal characteristic of a tunnel diode?
A high forward resistance
A very high PIV
A negative resistance region
A high forward current rating
C
4277 0
A6B04
What special type of diode is capable of both amplification and oscillation?
Point contact
Zener
Tunnel
Junction
C
4278 0
A6B05
In Figure A6-1, what is the schematic symbol for a tunnel diode?
8
6
2
1
C
4279 0
Figure A6-1
A61.BM_
A6B06
What type of semiconductor diode varies its internal capacitance as the voltage applied to its terminals varies?
Varactor
Tunnel
Silicon-controlled rectifier
Zener
A
4280 0
A6B07
In Figure A6-1, what is the schematic symbol for a varactor diode?
8
6
2
1
D
4281 0
Figure A6-1
A61.BM_
A6B08
What is a common use of a hot-carrier diode?
As balanced mixers in FM generation
As a variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control circuit
As a constant voltage reference in a power supply
As VHF and UHF mixers and detectors
D
4282 0
A6B09
What limits the maximum forward current in a junction diode?
Peak inverse voltage
Junction temperature
Forward voltage
Back EMF
B
4283 0
A6B10
How are junction diodes rated?
Maximum forward current and capacitance
Maximum reverse current and PIV
Maximum reverse current and capacitance
Maximum forward current and PIV
D
4284 0
A6B11
Structurally, what are the two main categories of semiconductor diodes?
Junction and point contact
Electrolytic and junction
Electrolytic and point contact
Vacuum and point contact
A
4285 0
A6B12
What is a common use for point contact diodes?
As a constant current source
As a constant voltage source
As an RF detector
As a high voltage rectifier
C
4286 0
A6B13
In Figure A6-1, what is the schematic symbol for a semiconductor diode/rectifier?
1
2
3
4
D
4287 0
Figure A6-1
A61.BM_
A6B14
What is one common use for PIN diodes?
As a constant current source
As a constant voltage source
As an RF switch
As a high voltage rectifier
C
4288 0
A6B15
In Figure A6-1, what is the schematic symbol for a light-emitting diode?
1
5
6
7
B
4289 0
Figure A6-1
A61.BM_
A6B16
What type of bias is required for an LED to produce luminescence?
Reverse bias
Forward bias
Zero bias
Inductive bias
B
4290 0
A6C01
What material property determines the inductance of a toroidal inductor with a 10-turn winding?
Core load current
Core resistance
Core reactivity
Core permeability
D
4291 0
A6C02
By careful selection of core material, over what frequency range can toroidal cores produce useful inductors?
From a few kHz to no more than several MHz
From DC to at least 1000 MHz
From DC to no more than 3000 kHz
From a few hundred MHz to at least 1000 GHz
B
4292 0
A6C03
What materials are used to make ferromagnetic inductors and transformers?
Ferrite and powdered-iron toroids
Silicon-ferrite toroids and shellac
Powdered-ferrite and silicon toroids
Ferrite and silicon-epoxy toroids
A
4293 0
A6C04
What is one important reason for using powdered-iron toroids rather than ferrite toroids in an inductor?
Powdered-iron toroids generally have greater initial permeabilities
Powdered-iron toroids generally have better temperature stability
Powdered-iron toroids generally require fewer turns to produce a given inductance value
Powdered-iron toroids are easier to use with surface-mount technology
B
4294 0
A6C05
What is one important reason for using ferrite toroids rather than powdered-iron toroids in an inductor?
Ferrite toroids generally have lower initial permeabilities
Ferrite toroids generally have better temperature stability
Ferrite toroids generally require fewer turns to produce a given inductance value
Ferrite toroids are easier to use with surface-mount technology
C
4295 0
A6C06
What would be a good choice of toroid core material to make a common-mode choke (such as winding telephone wires or stereo speaker leads on a core) to cure an HF RFI problem?
Type 61 mix ferrite (initial permeability of 125)
Type 43 mix ferrite (initial permeability of 850)
Type 6 mix powdered iron (initial permeability of 8)
Type 12 mix powdered iron (initial permeability of 3)
B
4296 0
A6C07
What devices are commonly used as parasitic suppressors at the input and output terminals of VHF and UHF amplifiers?
Electrolytic capacitors
Butterworth filters
Ferrite beads
Steel-core toroids
C
4297 0
A6C08
What is a primary advantage of using a toroidal core instead of a linear core in an inductor?
Toroidal cores contain most of the magnetic field within the core material
Toroidal cores make it easier to couple the magnetic energy into other components
Toroidal cores exhibit greater hysteresis
Toroidal cores have lower Q characteristics
A
4298 0
A6C09
What is a bifilar-wound toroid?
An inductor that has two cores taped together to double the inductance value
An inductor wound on a core with two holes (binocular core)
A transformer designed to provide a 2-to-1 impedance transformation
An inductor that uses a pair of wires to place two windings on the core
D
4299 0
A6C10
How many turns will be required to produce a 1-mH inductor using a ferrite toroidal core that has an inductance index (A sub L) value of523?
2 turns
4 turns
43 turns
229 turns
C
4300 0
A6C11
How many turns will be required to produce a 5-microhenry inductor using a powdered-iron toroidal core that has an inductance index (A sub L) value of 40?
35 turns
13 turns
79 turns
141 turns
A
4301 0
A6D01
What are the three terminals of a bipolar transistor?
Cathode, plate and grid
Base, collector and emitter
Gate, source and sink
Input, output and ground
B
4302 0
A6D02
What is the alpha of a bipolar transistor?
The change of collector current with respect to base current
The change of base current with respect to collector current
The change of collector current with respect to emitter current
The change of collector current with respect to gate current
C
4303 0
A6D03
What is the beta of a bipolar transistor?
The change of collector current with respect to base current
The change of base current with respect to emitter current
The change of collector current with respect to emitter current
The change of base current with respect to gate current
A
4304 0
A6D04
What is the alpha cutoff frequency of a bipolar transistor?
The practical lower frequency limit of a transistor in common emitter configuration
The practical upper frequency limit of a transistor in common emitter configuration
The practical lower frequency limit of a transistor in common base configuration
The practical upper frequency limit of a transistor in common base configuration
D
4305 0
A6D05
In Figure A6-2, what is the schematic symbol for an NPN transistor?
1
2
4
5
B
4306 0
Figure A6-2
A62.BM_
A6D06
In Figure A6-2, what is the schematic symbol for a PNP transistor?
1
2
4
5
A
4307 0
Figure A6-2
A62.BM_
A6D07
What term indicates the frequency at which a transistor grounded base current gain has decreased to 0.7 of the gain obtainable at 1 kHz?
Corner frequency
Alpha rejection frequency
Beta cutoff frequency
Alpha cutoff frequency
D
4308 0
A6D08
What does the beta cutoff of a bipolar transistor indicate?
The frequency at which the grounded base current gain has decreased to 0.7 of that obtainable at 1 kHz
The frequency at which the grounded emitter current gain has decreased to 0.7 of that obtainable at 1 kHz
The frequency at which the grounded collector current gain has decreased to 0.7 of that obtainable at 1 kHz
The frequency at which the grounded gate current gain has decreased to 0.7 of that obtainable at 1 kHz
B
4309 0
A6D09
What is the transition region of a transistor?
An area of low charge density around the P-N junction
The area of maximum P-type charge
The area of maximum N-type charge
The point where wire leads are connected to the P- or N-type material
A
4310 0
A6D10
What does it mean for a transistor to be fully saturated?
The collector current is at its maximum value
The collector current is at its minimum value
The transistor alpha is at its maximum value
The transistor beta is at its maximum value
A
4311 0
A6D11
What does it mean for a transistor to be cut off?
There is no base current
The transistor is at its operating point
No current flows from emitter to collector
Maximum current flows from emitter to collector
C
4312 0
A6D12
In Figure A6-2, what is the schematic symbol for a unijunction transistor?
3
4
5
6
D
4313 0
Figure A6-2
A62.BM_
A6D13
What are the elements of a unijunction transistor?
Gate, base 1 and base 2
Gate, cathode and anode
Base 1, base 2 and emitter
Gate, source and sink
C
4314 0
A6E01
What are the three terminals of a silicon controlled rectifier (SCR)?
Gate, source and sink
Anode, cathode and gate
Base, collector and emitter
Gate, base 1 and base 2
B
4315 0
A6E02
What are the two stable operating conditions of a silicon controlled rectifier (SCR)?
Conducting and nonconducting
Oscillating and quiescent
Forward conducting and reverse conducting
NPN conduction and PNP conduction
A
4316 0
A6E03
When a silicon controlled rectifier (SCR) is triggered, to what other solid-state device are its electrical characteristics similar (as measured between its cathode and anode)?
The junction diode
The tunnel diode
The hot-carrier diode
The varactor diode
A
4317 0
A6E04
Under what operating conditions does a silicon controlled rectifier(SCR) exhibit electrical characteristics similar to a forward-biased silicon rectifier?
During a switching transition
When it is used as a detector
When it is gated "off"
When it is gated "on"
D
4318 0
A6E05
In Figure A6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a silicon controlled rectifier (SCR)?
1
2
5
6
C
4319 0
Figure A6-3
A63.BM_
A6E06
What is the name of the device that is fabricated as two complementary silicon controlled rectifiers (SCRs) in parallel with a common gate terminal?
Bilateral SCR
TRIAC
Unijunction transistor
Field-effect transistor
B
4320 0
A6E07
What are the three terminals of a TRIAC?
Emitter, base 1 and base 2
Gate, anode 1 and anode 2
Base, emitter and collector
Gate, source and sink
B
4321 0
A6E08
In Figure A6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a TRIAC?
1
2
3
5
A
4322 0
Figure A6-3
A63.BM_
A6E09
What will happen to a neon lamp in the presence of RF?
It will glow only in the presence of very high frequency radio energy
It will change color
It will glow only in the presence of very low frequency radio energy
It will glow
D
4323 0
A6E10
If an NE-2 neon bulb is to be used as a dial lamp with a 120 V AC line, what additional component must be connected to it?
A 150-pF capacitor in parallel with the bulb
A 10-mH inductor in series with the bulb
A 150-kilohm resistor in series with the bulb
A 10-kilohm resistor in parallel with the bulb
C
4324 0
A6E11
In Figure A6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a neon lamp?
1
2
3
4
C
4325 0
Figure A6-3
A63.BM_
A6F01
For single-sideband phone emissions, what would be the bandwidth of a good crystal lattice band-pass filter?
6 kHz at -6 dB
2.1 kHz at -6 dB
500 Hz at -6 dB
15 kHz at -6 dB
B
4326 0
A6F02
For double-sideband phone emissions, what would be the bandwidth of a good crystal lattice band-pass filter?
1 kHz at -6 dB
500 Hz at -6 dB
6 kHz at -6 dB
15 kHz at -6 dB
C
4327 0
A6F03
What is a crystal lattice filter?
A power supply filter made with interlaced quartz crystals
An audio filter made with four quartz crystals that resonate at 1-kHz intervals
A filter with wide bandwidth and shallow skirts made using quartz crystals
A filter with narrow bandwidth and steep skirts made using quartz crystals
D
4328 0
A6F04
What technique is used to construct low-cost, high-performance crystal filters?
Choose a center frequency that matches the available crystals
Choose a crystal with the desired bandwidth and operating frequency to match a desired center frequency
Measure crystal bandwidth to ensure at least 20% coupling
Measure crystal frequencies and carefully select units with less than 10% frequency difference
D
4329 0
A6F05
Which factor helps determine the bandwidth and response shape of a crystal filter?
The relative frequencies of the individual crystals
The center frequency chosen for the filter
The gain of the RF stage preceding the filter
The amplitude of the signals passing through the filter
A
4330 0
A6F06
What is the piezoelectric effect?
Physical deformation of a crystal by the application of a voltage
Mechanical deformation of a crystal by the application of a magnetic field
The generation of electrical energy by the application of light
Reversed conduction states when a P-N junction is exposed to light
A
4331 0
A6F07
Which of the following devices would be most suitable for constructing a receive preamplifier for 1296 MHz?
A 2N2222 bipolar transistor
An MRF901 bipolar transistor
An MSA-0135 monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC)
An MPF102 N-junction field-effect transistor (JFET)
C
4332 0
A6F08
Which device might be used to simplify the design and construction of a 3456-MHz receiver?
An MSA-0735 monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC).
An MRF901 bipolar transistor
An MGF1402 gallium arsenide field-effect transistor (GaAsFET)
An MPF102 N-junction field-effect transistor (JFET)
A
4333 0
A6F09
What type of amplifier device consists of a small "pill sized" package with an input lead, an output lead and 2 ground leads?
A gallium arsenide field-effect transistor (GaAsFET)
An operational amplifier integrated circuit (OAIC)
An indium arsenide integrated circuit (IAIC)
A monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC)
D
4334 0
A6F10
What typical construction technique do amateurs use when building an amplifier containing a monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC)?
Ground-plane "ugly" construction
Microstrip construction
Point-to-point construction
Wave-soldering construction
B
4335 0
A6F11
How is the operating bias voltage supplied to a monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC)?
Through a resistor and RF choke connected to the amplifier output lead
MMICs require no operating bias
Through a capacitor and RF choke connected to the amplifier input lead
Directly to the bias-voltage (VCC IN) lead
A
4336 0
A7A01
For what portion of a signal cycle does a Class A amplifier operate?
Less than 180 degrees
The entire cycle
More than 180 degrees and less than 360 degrees
Exactly 180 degrees
B
4337 0
A7A02
Which class of amplifier has the highest linearity and least distortion?
Class A
Class B
Class C
Class AB
A
4338 0
A7A03
For what portion of a signal cycle does a Class AB amplifier operate?
More than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees
Exactly 180 degrees
The entire cycle
Less than 180 degrees
A
4339 0
A7A04
For what portion of a signal cycle does a Class B amplifier operate?
The entire cycle
Greater than 180 degrees and less than 360 degrees
Less than 180 degrees
180 degrees
D
4340 0
A7A05
For what portion of a signal cycle does a Class C amplifier operate?
Less than 180 degrees
Exactly 180 degrees
The entire cycle
More than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees
A
4341 0
A7A06
Which class of amplifier provides the highest efficiency?
Class A
Class B
Class C
Class AB
C
4342 0
A7A07
Where on the load line should a solid-state power amplifier be operated for best efficiency and stability?
Just below the saturation point
Just above the saturation point
At the saturation point
At 1.414 times the saturation point
A
4343 0
A7A08
What is the formula for the efficiency of a power amplifier?
Efficiency = (RF power out / DC power in) x 100%
Efficiency = (RF power in / RF power out) x 100%
Efficiency = (RF power in / DC power in) x 100%
Efficiency = (DC power in / RF power in) x 100%
A
4344 0
A7A09
How can parasitic oscillations be eliminated from a power amplifier?
By tuning for maximum SWR
By tuning for maximum power output
By neutralization
By tuning the output
C
4345 0
A7A10
What is the procedure for tuning a vacuum-tube power amplifier having an output pi-network?
Adjust the loading capacitor to maximum capacitance and then dip the plate current with the tuning capacitor
Alternately increase the plate current with the tuning capacitor and dip the plate current with the loading capacitor
Adjust the tuning capacitor to maximum capacitance and then dip the plate current with the loading capacitor
Alternately increase the plate current with the loading capacitor and dip the plate current with the tuning capacitor
D
4346 0
A7A11
How can even-order harmonics be reduced or prevented in transmitter amplifiers?
By using a push-push amplifier
By using a push-pull amplifier
By operating Class C
By operating Class AB
B
4347 0
A7A12
What can occur when a nonlinear amplifier is used with a single-sideband phone transmitter?
Reduced amplifier efficiency
Increased intelligibility
Sideband inversion
Distortion
D
4348 0
A7B01
How can a vacuum-tube power amplifier be neutralized?
By increasing the grid drive
By feeding back an in-phase component of the output to the input
By feeding back an out-of-phase component of the output to the input
By feeding back an out-of-phase component of the input to the output
C
4349 0
A7B02
What is the flywheel effect?
The continued motion of a radio wave through space when the transmitter is turned off
The back and forth oscillation of electrons in an LC circuit
The use of a capacitor in a power supply to filter rectified AC
The transmission of a radio signal to a distant station by several hops through the ionosphere
B
4350 0
A7B03
What tank-circuit Q is required to reduce harmonics to an acceptable level?
Approximately 120
Approximately 12
Approximately 1200
Approximately 1.2
B
4351 0
A7B04
What type of circuit is shown in Figure A7-1?
Switching voltage regulator
Linear voltage regulator
Common emitter amplifier
Emitter follower amplifier
C
4352 0
Figure A7-1
A71.BM_
A7B05
In Figure A7-1, what is the purpose of R1 and R2?
Load resistors
Fixed bias
Self bias
Feedback
B
4353 0
Figure A7-1
A71.BM_
A7B06
In Figure A7-1, what is the purpose of C1?
Decoupling
Output coupling
Self bias
Input coupling
D
4354 0
Figure A7-1
A71.BM_
A7B07
In Figure A7-1, what is the purpose of C3?
AC feedback
Input coupling
Power supply decoupling
Emitter bypass
D
4355 0
Figure A7-1
A71.BM_
A7B08
In Figure A7-1, what is the purpose of R3?
Fixed bias
Emitter bypass
Output load resistor
Self bias
D
4356 0
Figure A7-1
A71.BM_
A7B09
What type of circuit is shown in Figure A7-2?
High-gain amplifier
Common-collector amplifier
Linear voltage regulator
Grounded-emitter amplifier
B
4357 0
Figure A7-2
A72.BM_
A7B10
In Figure A7-2, what is the purpose of R?
Emitter load
Fixed bias
Collector load
Voltage regulation
A
4358 0
Figure A7-2
A72.BM_
A7B11
In Figure A7-2, what is the purpose of C1?
Input coupling
Output coupling
Emitter bypass
Collector bypass
D
4359 0
Figure A7-2
A72.BM_
A7B12
In Figure A7-2, what is the purpose of C2?
Output coupling
Emitter bypass
Input coupling
Hum filtering
A
4360 0
Figure A7-2
A72.BM_
A7B13
What type of circuit is shown in Figure A7-3?
Switching voltage regulator
Grounded emitter amplifier
Linear voltage regulator
Emitter follower
C
4361 0
Figure A7-3
A73.BM_
A7B14
What is the purpose of D1 in the circuit shown in Figure A7-3?
Line voltage stabilization
Voltage reference
Peak clipping
Hum filtering
B
4362 0
Figure A7-3
A73.BM_
A7B15
What is the purpose of Q1 in the circuit shown in Figure A7-3?
It increases the output ripple
It provides a constant load for the voltage source
It increases the current-handling capability
It provides D1 with current
C
4363 0
Figure A7-3
A73.BM_
A7B16
What is the purpose of C1 in the circuit shown in Figure A7-3?
It resonates at the ripple frequency
It provides fixed bias for Q1
It decouples the output
It filters the supply voltage
D
4364 0
Figure A7-3
A73.BM_
A7B17
What is the purpose of C2 in the circuit shown in Figure A7-3?
It bypasses hum around D1
It is a brute force filter for the output
To self resonate at the hum frequency
To provide fixed DC bias for Q1
A
4365 0
Figure A7-3
A73.BM_
A7B18
What is the purpose of C3 in the circuit shown in Figure A7-3?
It prevents self-oscillation
It provides brute force filtering of the output
It provides fixed bias for Q1
It clips the peaks of the ripple
A
4366 0
Figure A7-3
A73.BM_
A7B19
What is the purpose of R1 in the circuit shown in Figure A7-3?
It provides a constant load to the voltage source
It couples hum to D1
It supplies current to D1
It bypasses hum around D1
C
4367 0
Figure A7-3
A73.BM_
A7B20
What is the purpose of R2 in the circuit shown in Figure A7-3?
It provides fixed bias for Q1
It provides fixed bias for D1
It decouples hum from D1
It provides a constant minimum load for Q1
D
4368 0
Figure A7-3
A73.BM_
A7C01
What is a pi-network?
A network consisting entirely of four inductors or four capacitors
A Power Incidence network
An antenna matching network that is isolated from ground
A network consisting of one inductor and two capacitors or two inductors and one capacitor
D
4369 0
A7C02
Which type of network offers the greater transformation ratio?
L-network
Pi-network
Constant-K
Constant-M
B
4370 0
A7C03
How are the capacitors and inductors of a pi-network arranged between the network's input and output?
Two inductors are in series between the input and output and a capacitor is connected between the two inductors and ground
Two capacitors are in series between the input and output and an inductor is connected between the two capacitors and ground
An inductor is in parallel with the input, another inductor is in parallel with the output, and a capacitor is in series between the two
A capacitor is in parallel with the input, another capacitor is in parallel with the output, and an inductor is in series between the two
D
4371 0
A7C04
What is an L-network?
A network consisting entirely of four inductors
A network consisting of an inductor and a capacitor
A network used to generate a leading phase angle
A network used to generate a lagging phase angle
B
4372 0
A7C05
Why is an L-network of limited utility in impedance matching?
It matches a small impedance range
It has limited power-handling capabilities
It is thermally unstable
It is prone to self resonance
A
4373 0
A7C06
What is a pi-L-network?
A Phase Inverter Load network
A network consisting of two inductors and two capacitors
A network with only three discrete parts
A matching network in which all components are isolated from ground
B
4374 0
A7C07
A T-network with series capacitors and a parallel (shunt) inductor has which of the following properties?
It transforms impedances and is a low-pass filter
It transforms reactances and is a low-pass filter
It transforms impedances and is a high-pass filter
It transforms reactances and is a high-pass filter
C
4375 0
A7C08
What advantage does a pi-L-network have over a pi-network for impedance matching between the final amplifier of a vacuum-tube type transmitter and a multiband antenna?
Greater harmonic suppression
Higher efficiency
Lower losses
Greater transformation range
A
4376 0
A7C09
Which type of network provides the greatest harmonic suppression?
L-network
Pi-network
Pi-L-network
Inverse-Pi network
C
4377 0
A7C10
Which three types of networks are most commonly used to match an amplifying device and a transmission line?
M, pi and T
T, M and Q
L, pi and pi-L
L, M and C
C
4378 0
A7C11
How does a network transform one impedance to another?
It introduces negative resistance to cancel the resistive part of an impedance
It introduces transconductance to cancel the reactive part of an impedance
It cancels the reactive part of an impedance and changes the resistive part
Network resistances substitute for load resistances
C
4379 0
A7D01
What are the three general groupings of filters?
High-pass, low-pass and band-pass
Inductive, capacitive and resistive
Audio, radio and capacitive
Hartley, Colpitts and Pierce
A
4380 0
A7D02
What value capacitor would be required to tune a 20-microhenry inductor to resonate in the 80-meter band?
150 picofarads
100 picofarads
200 picofarads
100 microfarads
B
4381 0
A7D03
What value inductor would be required to tune a 100-picofarad capacitor to resonate in the 40-meter band?
200 microhenrys
150 microhenrys
5 millihenrys
5 microhenrys
D
4382 0
A7D04
What value capacitor would be required to tune a 2-microhenry inductor to resonate in the 20-meter band?
64 picofarads
6 picofarads
12 picofarads
88 microfarads
A
4383 0
A7D05
What value inductor would be required to tune a 15-picofarad capacitor to resonate in the 15-meter band?
2 microhenrys
30 microhenrys
4 microhenrys
15 microhenrys
C
4384 0
A7D06
What value capacitor would be required to tune a 100-microhenry inductor to resonate in the 160-meter band?
78 picofarads
25 picofarads
405 picofarads
40.5 microfarads
A
4385 0
A7D07
What are the distinguishing features of a Butterworth filter?
The product of its series- and shunt-element impedances is a constant for all frequencies
It only requires capacitors
It has a maximally flat response over its passband
It requires only inductors
C
4386 0
A7D08
What are the distinguishing features of a Chebyshev filter?
It has a maximally flat response over its passband
It allows ripple in the passband
It only requires inductors
The product of its series- and shunt-element impedances is a constant for all frequencies
B
4387 0
A7D09
Which filter type is described as having ripple in the passband and a sharp cutoff?
A Butterworth filter
An active LC filter
A passive op-amp filter
A Chebyshev filter
D
4388 0
A7D10
What are the distinguishing features of an elliptical filter?
Gradual passband rolloff with minimal stop-band ripple
Extremely flat response over its passband, with gradually rounded stop-band corners
Extremely sharp cutoff, with one or more infinitely deep notches in the stop band
Gradual passband rolloff with extreme stop-band ripple
C
4389 0
A7D11
Which filter type has an extremely sharp cutoff, with one or more infinitely deep notches in the stop band?
Chebyshev
Elliptical
Butterworth
Crystal lattice
B
4390 0
A7E01
What is one characteristic of a linear electronic voltage regulator?
It has a ramp voltage as its output
The pass transistor switches from the "off" state to the "on" state
The control device is switched on or off, with the duty cycle proportional to the line or load conditions
The conduction of a control element is varied in direct proportion to the line voltage or load current
D
4391 0
A7E02
What is one characteristic of a switching electronic voltage regulator?
The conduction of a control element is varied in direct proportion to the line voltage or load current
It provides more than one output voltage
The control device is switched on or off, with the duty cycle proportional to the line or load conditions
It gives a ramp voltage at its output
C
4392 0
A7E03
What device is typically used as a stable reference voltage in a linear voltage regulator?
A Zener diode
A tunnel diode
An SCR
A varactor diode
A
4393 0
A7E04
What type of linear regulator is used in applications requiring efficient utilization of the primary power source?
A constant current source
A series regulator
A shunt regulator
A shunt current source
B
4394 0
A7E05
What type of linear voltage regulator is used in applications requiring a constant load on the unregulated voltage source?
A constant current source
A series regulator
A shunt current source
A shunt regulator
D
4395 0
A7E06
To obtain the best temperature stability, approximately what operating voltage should be used for the reference diode in a linear voltage regulator?
2 volts
3 volts
6 volts
10 volts
C
4396 0
A7E07
How is remote sensing accomplished in a linear voltage regulator?
A feedback connection to an error amplifier is made directly to the load
By wireless inductive loops
A load connection is made outside the feedback loop
An error amplifier compares the input voltage to the reference voltage
A
4397 0
A7E08
What is a three-terminal regulator?
A regulator that supplies three voltages with variable current
A regulator that supplies three voltages at a constant current
A regulator containing three error amplifiers and sensing transistors
A regulator containing a voltage reference, error amplifier, sensing resistors and transistors, and a pass element
D
4398 0
A7E09
What are the important characteristics of a three-terminal regulator?
Maximum and minimum input voltage, minimum output current and voltage
Maximum and minimum input voltage, maximum output current and voltage
Maximum and minimum input voltage, minimum output current and maximum output voltage
Maximum and minimum input voltage, minimum output voltage and maximum output current
B
4399 0
A7E10
What type of voltage regulator limits the voltage drop across its junction when a specified current passes through it in the reverse-breakdown direction?
A Zener diode
A three-terminal regulator
A bipolar regulator
A pass-transistor regulator
A
4400 0
A7E11
What type of voltage regulator contains a voltage reference, error amplifier, sensing resistors and transistors, and a pass element in one package?
A switching regulator
A Zener regulator
A three-terminal regulator
An op-amp regulator
C
4401 0
A7F01
What are three major oscillator circuits often used in Amateur Radio equipment?
Taft, Pierce and negative feedback
Colpitts, Hartley and Taft
Taft, Hartley and Pierce
Colpitts, Hartley and Pierce
D
4402 0
A7F02
What condition must exist for a circuit to oscillate?
It must have a gain of less than 1
It must be neutralized
It must have positive feedback sufficient to overcome losses
It must have negative feedback sufficient to cancel the input
C
4403 0
A7F03
How is the positive feedback coupled to the input in a Hartley oscillator?
Through a tapped coil
Through a capacitive divider
Through link coupling
Through a neutralizing capacitor
A
4404 0
A7F04
How is the positive feedback coupled to the input in a Colpitts oscillator?
Through a tapped coil
Through link coupling
Through a capacitive divider
Through a neutralizing capacitor
C
4405 0
A7F05
How is the positive feedback coupled to the input in a Pierce oscillator?
Through a tapped coil
Through link coupling
Through a neutralizing capacitor
Through capacitive coupling
D
4406 0
A7F06
Which of the three major oscillator circuits used in Amateur Radio equipment uses a quartz crystal?
Negative feedback
Hartley
Colpitts
Pierce
D
4407 0
A7F07
What is the major advantage of a Pierce oscillator?
It is easy to neutralize
It doesn't require an LC tank circuit
It can be tuned over a wide range
It has a high output power
B
4408 0
A7F08
Which type of oscillator circuits are commonly used in a VFO?
Pierce and Zener
Colpitts and Hartley
Armstrong and deForest
Negative feedback and Balanced feedback
B
4409 0
A7F09
Why is the Colpitts oscillator circuit commonly used in a VFO?
The frequency is a linear function of the load impedance
It can be used with or without crystal lock-in
It is stable
It has high output power
C
4410 0
A7F10
What component is often used to control an oscillator frequency by varying a control voltage?
A varactor diode
A piezoelectric crystal
A Zener diode
A Pierce crystal
A
4411 0
A7F11
Why must a very stable reference oscillator be used as part of a phase-locked loop (PLL) frequency synthesizer?
Any amplitude variations in the reference oscillator signal will prevent the loop from locking to the desired signal
Any phase variations in the reference oscillator signal will produce phase noise in the synthesizer output
Any phase variations in the reference oscillator signal will produce harmonic distortion in the modulating signal
Any amplitude variations in the reference oscillator signal will prevent the loop from changing frequency
B
4412 0
A7G01
What is meant by modulation?
The squelching of a signal until a critical signal-to-noise ratio is reached
Carrier rejection through phase nulling
A linear amplification mode
A mixing process whereby information is imposed upon a carrier
D
4413 0
A7G02
How is an F3E FM-phone emission produced?
With a balanced modulator on the audio amplifier
With a reactance modulator on the oscillator
With a reactance modulator on the final amplifier
With a balanced modulator on the oscillator
B
4414 0
A7G03
How does a reactance modulator work?
It acts as a variable resistance or capacitance to produce FM signals
It acts as a variable resistance or capacitance to produce AM signals
It acts as a variable inductance or capacitance to produce FM signals
It acts as a variable inductance or capacitance to produce AM signals
C
4415 0
A7G04
What type of circuit varies the tuning of an oscillator circuit to produce FM signals?
A balanced modulator
A reactance modulator
A double balanced mixer
An audio modulator
B
4416 0
A7G05
How does a phase modulator work?
It varies the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce FM signals
It varies the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce AM signals
It varies the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce FM signals
It varies the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce AM signals
C
4417 0
A7G06
What type of circuit varies the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce FM signals?
A balanced modulator
A double balanced mixer
A phase modulator
An audio modulator
C
4418 0
A7G07
What type of signal does a balanced modulator produce?
FM with balanced deviation
Double sideband, suppressed carrier
Single sideband, suppressed carrier
Full carrier
B
4419 0
A7G08
How can a single-sideband phone signal be generated?
By using a balanced modulator followed by a filter
By using a reactance modulator followed by a mixer
By using a loop modulator followed by a mixer
By driving a product detector with a DSB signal
A
4420 0
A7G09
How can a double-sideband phone signal be generated?
By feeding a phase modulated signal into a low-pass filter
By using a balanced modulator followed by a filter
By detuning a Hartley oscillator
By modulating the plate voltage of a Class C amplifier
D
4421 0
A7G10
What audio shaping network is added at a transmitter to proportionally attenuate the lower audio frequencies, giving an even spread to the energy in the audio band?
A de-emphasis network
A heterodyne suppressor
An audio prescaler
A pre-emphasis network
D
4422 0
A7G11
What audio shaping network is added at a receiver to restore proportionally attenuated lower audio frequencies?
A de-emphasis network
A heterodyne suppressor
An audio prescaler
A pre-emphasis network
A
4423 0
A7H01
What is the process of detection?
The masking of the intelligence on a received carrier
The recovery of the intelligence from a modulated RF signal
The modulation of a carrier
The mixing of noise with a received signal
B
4424 0
A7H02
What is the principle of detection in a diode detector?
Rectification and filtering of RF
Breakdown of the Zener voltage
Mixing with noise in the transition region of the diode
The change of reactance in the diode with respect to frequency
A
4425 0
A7H03
What does a product detector do?
It provides local oscillations for input to a mixer
It amplifies and narrows band-pass frequencies
It mixes an incoming signal with a locally generated carrier
It detects cross-modulation products
C
4426 0
A7H04
How are FM-phone signals detected?
With a balanced modulator
With a frequency discriminator
With a product detector
With a phase splitter
B
4427 0
A7H05
What is a frequency discriminator?
An FM generator
A circuit for filtering two closely adjacent signals
An automatic band-switching circuit
A circuit for detecting FM signals
D
4428 0
A7H06
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of using active filters rather than L-C filters at audio frequencies?
Active filters have higher signal-to-noise ratios
Active filters can provide gain as well as frequency selection
Active filters do not require the use of inductors
Active filters can use potentiometers for tuning
A
4429 0
A7H07
What kind of audio filter would you use to attenuate an interfering carrier signal while receiving an SSB transmission?
A band-pass filter
A notch filter
A pi-network filter
An all-pass filter
B
4430 0
A7H08
What characteristic do typical SSB receiver IF filters lack that is important to digital communications?
Steep amplitude-response skirts
Passband ripple
High input impedance
Linear phase response
D
4431 0
A7H09
What kind of digital signal processing audio filter might be used to remove unwanted noise from a received SSB signal?
An adaptive filter
A notch filter
A Hilbert-transform filter
A phase-inverting filter
A
4432 0
A7H10
What kind of digital signal processing filter might be used in generating an SSB signal?
An adaptive filter
A notch filter
A Hilbert-transform filter
An elliptical filter
C
4433 0
A7H11
Which type of filter would be the best to use in a 2-meter repeater duplexer?
A crystal filter
A cavity filter
A DSP filter
An L-C filter
B
4434 0
A7I01
What is the mixing process?
The elimination of noise in a wideband receiver by phase comparison
The elimination of noise in a wideband receiver by phase differentiation
The recovery of the intelligence from a modulated RF signal
The combination of two signals to produce sum and difference frequencies
D
4435 0
A7I02
What are the principal frequencies that appear at the output of a mixer circuit?
Two and four times the original frequency
The sum, difference and square root of the input frequencies
The original frequencies and the sum and difference frequencies
1.414 and 0.707 times the input frequency
C
4436 0
A7I03
What are the advantages of the frequency-conversion process?
Automatic squelching and increased selectivity
Increased selectivity and optimal tuned-circuit design
Automatic soft limiting and automatic squelching
Automatic detection in the RF amplifier and increased selectivity
B
4437 0
A7I04
What occurs in a receiver when an excessive amount of signal energy reaches the mixer circuit?
Spurious mixer products are generated
Mixer blanking occurs
Automatic limiting occurs
A beat frequency is generated
A
4438 0
A7I05
What type of frequency synthesizer circuit uses a stable voltage-controlled oscillator, programmable divider, phase detector, loop filter and a reference frequency source?
A direct digital synthesizer
A hybrid synthesizer
A phase-locked loop synthesizer
A diode-switching matrix synthesizer
C
4439 0
A7I06
What type of frequency synthesizer circuit uses a phase accumulator, lookup table, digital to analog converter and a low-pass anti alias filter?
A direct digital synthesizer
A hybrid synthesizer
A phase-locked loop synthesizer
A diode-switching matrix synthesizer
A
4440 0
A7I07
What are the main blocks of a phase-locked loop frequency synthesizer?
A variable-frequency crystal oscillator, programmable divider, digital to analog converter and a loop filter
A stable voltage-controlled oscillator, programmable divider, phase detector, loop filter and a reference frequency source
A phase accumulator, lookup table, digital to analog converter and a low-pass anti alias filter
A variable-frequency oscillator, programmable divider, phase detector and a low-pass anti alias filter
B
4441 0
A7I08
What are the main blocks of a direct digital frequency synthesizer?
A variable-frequency crystal oscillator, phase accumulator, digital to analog converter and a loop filter
A stable voltage-controlled oscillator, programmable divider, phase detector, loop filter and a digital to analog converter
A variable-frequency oscillator, programmable divider, phase detector and a low-pass anti alias filter
A phase accumulator, lookup table, digital to analog converter and a low-pass anti alias filter
D
4442 0
A7I09
What information is contained in the lookup table of a direct digital frequency synthesizer?
The phase relationship between a reference oscillator and the output waveform
The amplitude values that represent a sine-wave output
The phase relationship between a voltage-controlled oscillator and the output waveform
The synthesizer frequency limits and frequency values stored in the radio memories
B
4443 0
A7I10
What are the major spectral impurity components of direct digital synthesizers?
Broadband noise
Digital conversion noise
Spurs at discrete frequencies
Nyquist limit noise
C
4444 0
A7I11
What are the major spectral impurity components of phase-locked loop synthesizers?
Broadband noise
Digital conversion noise
Spurs at discrete frequencies
Nyquist limit noise
A
4445 0
A7J01
For most amateur phone communications, what should be the upper frequency limit of an audio amplifier?
No more than 1000 Hz
About 3000 Hz
At least 10,000 Hz
More than 20,000 Hz
B
4446 0
A7J02
What is the term for the ratio of the RMS voltage for all harmonics in an audio-amplifier output to the total RMS voltage of the output for a pure sine-wave input?
Total harmonic distortion
Maximum frequency deviation
Full quieting ratio
Harmonic signal ratio
A
4447 0
A7J03
What are the advantages of a Darlington pair audio amplifier?
Mutual gain, low input impedance and low output impedance
Low output impedance, high mutual inductance and low output current
Mutual gain, high stability and low mutual inductance
High gain, high input impedance and low output impedance
D
4448 0
A7J04
What is the purpose of a speech amplifier in an amateur phone transmitter?
To increase the dynamic range of the audio
To raise the microphone audio output to the level required by the modulator
To match the microphone impedance to the transmitter input impedance
To provide adequate AGC drive to the transmitter
B
4449 0
A7J05
What is an IF amplifier stage?
A fixed-tuned pass-band amplifier
A receiver demodulator
A receiver filter
A buffer oscillator
A
4450 0
A7J06
What factors should be considered when selecting an intermediate frequency?
Cross-modulation distortion and interference
Interference to other services
Image rejection and selectivity
Noise figure and distortion
C
4451 0
A7J07
Which of the following is a purpose of the first IF amplifier stage in a receiver?
To improve noise figure performance
To tune out cross-modulation distortion
To increase the dynamic response
To provide selectivity
D
4452 0
A7J08
Which of the following is an important reason for using a VHF intermediate frequency in an HF receiver?
To provide a greater tuning range
To move the image response far away from the filter passband
To tune out cross-modulation distortion
To prevent the generation of spurious mixer products
B
4453 0
A7J09
How much gain should be used in the RF amplifier stage of a receiver?
As much gain as possible, short of self oscillation
Sufficient gain to allow weak signals to overcome noise generated in the first mixer stage
Sufficient gain to keep weak signals below the noise of the first mixer stage
It depends on the amplification factor of the first IF stage
B
4454 0
A7J10
Why should the RF amplifier stage of a receiver have only sufficient gain to allow weak signals to overcome noise generated in the first mixer stage?
To prevent the sum and difference frequencies from being generated
To prevent bleed-through of the desired signal
To prevent the generation of spurious mixer products
To prevent bleed-through of the local oscillator
C
4455 0
A7J11
What is the primary purpose of an RF amplifier in a receiver?
To improve the receiver noise figure
To vary the receiver image rejection by using the AGC
To provide most of the receiver gain
To develop the AGC voltage
A
4456 0
A8A01
What is emission A3C?
Facsimile
RTTY
ATV
Slow Scan TV
A
4457 0
A8A02
What type of emission is produced when an AM transmitter is modulated by a facsimile signal?
A3F
A3C
F3F
F3C
B
4458 0
A8A03
What does a facsimile transmission produce?
Tone-modulated telegraphy
A pattern of printed characters designed to form a picture
Printed pictures by electrical means
Moving pictures by electrical means
C
4459 0
A8A04
What is emission F3C?
Voice transmission
Slow Scan TV
RTTY
Facsimile
D
4460 0
A8A05
What type of emission is produced when an FM transmitter is modulated by a facsimile signal?
F3C
A3C
F3F
A3F
A
4461 0
A8A06
What is emission A3F?
RTTY
Television
SSB
Modulated CW
B
4462 0
A8A07
What type of emission is produced when an AM transmitter is modulated by a television signal?
F3F
A3F
A3C
F3C
B
4463 0
A8A08
What is emission F3F?
Modulated CW
Facsimile
RTTY
Television
D
4464 0
A8A09
What type of emission is produced when an FM transmitter is modulated by a television signal?
A3F
A3C
F3F
F3C
C
4465 0
A8A10
What type of emission is produced when an SSB transmitter is modulated by a slow-scan television signal?
J3A
F3F
A3F
J3F
D
4466 0
A8A11
What emission is produced when an AM transmitter is modulated by a single-channel signal containing digital information without the use of a modulating subcarrier, resulting in telegraphy for aural reception?
CW
RTTY
Data
MCW
A
4467 0
A8B01
What International Telecommunication Union (ITU) system describes the characteristics and necessary bandwidth of any transmitted signal?
Emission Designators
Emission Zones
Band Plans
Modulation Indicators
A
4468 0
A8B02
Which of the following describe the three most-used symbols of an ITU emission designator?
Type of modulation, transmitted bandwidth and modulation code designator
Bandwidth of the modulating signal, nature of the modulating signal and transmission rate of signals
Type of modulation, nature of the modulating signal and type of information to be transmitted
Power of signal being transmitted, nature of multiplexing and transmission speed
C
4469 0
A8B03
If the first symbol of an ITU emission designator is J, representing a single-sideband, suppressed-carrier signal, what information about the emission is described?
The nature of any signal multiplexing
The type of modulation of the main carrier
The maximum permissible bandwidth
The maximum signal level, in decibels
B
4470 0
A8B04
If the first symbol of an ITU emission designator is G, representing a phase-modulated signal, what information about the emission is described?
The nature of any signal multiplexing
The maximum permissible deviation
The nature of signals modulating the main carrier
The type of modulation of the main carrier
D
4471 0
A8B05
If the first symbol of an ITU emission designator is P, representing a sequence of unmodulated pulses, what information about the emission is described?
The type of modulation of the main carrier
The maximum permissible pulse width
The nature of signals modulating the main carrier
The nature of any signal multiplexing
A
4472 0
A8B06
If the second symbol of an ITU emission designator is 3, representing a single channel containing analog information, what information about the emission is described?
The nature of signals modulating the main carrier
The maximum permissible deviation
The maximum signal level, in decibels
The type of modulation of the main carrier
A
4473 0
A8B07
If the second symbol of an ITU emission designator is 1, representing a single channel containing quantized, or digital information, what information about the emission is described?
The maximum transmission rate, in bauds
The maximum permissible deviation
The nature of signals modulating the main carrier
The type of information to be transmitted
C
4474 0
A8B08
If the third symbol of an ITU emission designator is D, representing data transmission, telemetry or telecommand, what information about the emission is described?
The maximum transmission rate, in bauds
The maximum permissible deviation
The nature of signals modulating the main carrier
The type of information to be transmitted
D
4475 0
A8B09
If the third symbol of an ITU emission designator is A, representing telegraphy for aural reception, what information about the emission is described?
The maximum transmission rate, in words per minute
The type of information to be transmitted
The nature of signals modulating the main carrier
The maximum number of different signal elements
B
4476 0
A8B10
If the third symbol of an ITU emission designator is B, representing telegraphy for automatic reception, what information about the emission is described?
The maximum transmission rate, in bauds
The type of information to be transmitted
The type of modulation of the main carrier
The transmission code is Baudot
B
4477 0
A8B11
If the third symbol of an ITU emission designator is F, representing television (video), what information about the emission is described?
The maximum frequency variation of the color-burst pulse
The picture scan rate is fast
The type of modulation of the main carrier
The type of information to be transmitted
D
4478 0
A8C01
How can an FM-phone signal be produced?
By modulating the supply voltage to a Class-B amplifier
By modulating the supply voltage to a Class-C amplifier
By using a reactance modulator on an oscillator
By using a balanced modulator on an oscillator
C
4479 0
A8C02
How can the unwanted sideband be removed from a double-sideband signal generated by a balanced modulator to produce a single-sideband phone signal?
By filtering
By heterodyning
By mixing
By neutralization
A
4480 0
A8C03
What is meant by modulation index?
The processor index
The ratio between the deviation of a frequency modulated signal and the modulating frequency
The FM signal-to-noise ratio
The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest audio modulating frequency
B
4481 0
A8C04
In an FM-phone signal, what is the term for the ratio between the deviation of the frequency modulated signal and the modulating frequency?
FM compressibility
Quieting index
Percentage of modulation
Modulation index
D
4482 0
A8C05
How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency (the modulated frequency)?
It increases as the RF carrier frequency increases
It decreases as the RF carrier frequency increases
It varies with the square root of the RF carrier frequency
It does not depend on the RF carrier frequency
D
4483 0
A8C06
In an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3000 Hz either side of the carrier frequency, what is the modulation index when the modulating frequency is 1000 Hz?
3
0.3
3000
1000
A
4484 0
A8C07
What is the modulation index of an FM-phone transmitter producing an instantaneous carrier deviation of 6 kHz when modulated with a 2-kHzmodulating frequency?
6000
3
2000
1/3
B
4485 0
A8C08
What is meant by deviation ratio?
The ratio of the audio modulating frequency to the center carrier frequency
The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest audio modulating frequency
The ratio of the carrier center frequency to the audio modulating frequency
The ratio of the highest audio modulating frequency to the average audio modulating frequency
B
4486 0
A8C09
In an FM-phone signal, what is the term for the maximum deviation from the carrier frequency divided by the maximum audio modulating frequency?
Deviation index
Modulation index
Deviation ratio
Modulation ratio
C
4487 0
A8C10
What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 5 kHz and accepting a maximum modulation rate of 3 kHz?
60
0.16
0.6
1.66
D
4488 0
A8C11
What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz and accepting a maximum modulation rate of 3.5 kHz?
2.14
0.214
0.47
47
A
4489 0
A8D01
What are electromagnetic waves?
Alternating currents in the core of an electromagnet
A wave consisting of two electric fields at right angles to each other
A wave consisting of an electric field and a magnetic field at right angles to each other
A wave consisting of two magnetic fields at right angles to each other
C
4490 0
A8D02
At approximately what speed do electromagnetic waves travel in free space?
300 million meters per second
468 million meters per second
186,300 feet per second
300 million miles per second
A
4491 0
A8D03
Why don't electromagnetic waves penetrate a good conductor for more than a fraction of a wavelength?
Electromagnetic waves are reflected by the surface of a good conductor
Oxide on the conductor surface acts as a magnetic shield
The electromagnetic waves are dissipated as eddy currents in the conductor surface
The resistance of the conductor surface dissipates the electromagnetic waves
C
4492 0
A8D04
Which of the following best describes electromagnetic waves traveling in free space?
Electric and magnetic fields become aligned as they travel
The energy propagates through a medium with a high refractive index
The waves are reflected by the ionosphere and return to their source
Changing electric and magnetic fields propagate the energy across a vacuum
D
4493 0
A8D05
What is meant by horizontally polarized electromagnetic waves?
Waves with an electric field parallel to the Earth
Waves with a magnetic field parallel to the Earth
Waves with both electric and magnetic fields parallel to the Earth
Waves with both electric and magnetic fields perpendicular to the Earth
A
4494 0
A8D06
What is meant by circularly polarized electromagnetic waves?
Waves with an electric field bent into a circular shape
Waves with a rotating electric field
Waves that circle the Earth
Waves produced by a loop antenna
B
4495 0
A8D07
What is the polarization of an electromagnetic wave if its electric field is perpendicular to the surface of the Earth?
Circular
Horizontal
Vertical
Elliptical
C
4496 0
A8D08
What is the polarization of an electromagnetic wave if its magnetic field is parallel to the surface of the Earth?
Circular
Horizontal
Elliptical
Vertical
D
4497 0
A8D09
What is the polarization of an electromagnetic wave if its magnetic field is perpendicular to the surface of the Earth?
Horizontal
Circular
Elliptical
Vertical
A
4498 0
A8D10
What is the polarization of an electromagnetic wave if its electric field is parallel to the surface of the Earth?
Vertical
Horizontal
Circular
Elliptical
B
4499 0
A8D11
What is the primary source of noise that can be heard in an HF-band receiver with an antenna connected?
Detector noise
Man-made noise
Receiver front-end noise
Atmospheric noise
D
4500 0
A8D12
What is the primary source of noise that can be heard in a VHF/UHF-band receiver with an antenna connected?
Receiver front-end noise
Man-made noise
Atmospheric noise
Detector noise
A
4501 0
A8E01
What is a sine wave?
A constant-voltage, varying-current wave
A wave whose amplitude at any given instant can be represented by a point on a wheel rotating at a uniform speed
A wave following the laws of the trigonometric tangent function
A wave whose polarity changes in a random manner
B
4502 0
A8E02
Starting at a positive peak, how many times does a sine wave cross the zero axis in one complete cycle?
180 times
4 times
2 times
360 times
C
4503 0
A8E03
How many degrees are there in one complete sine wave cycle?
90 degrees
270 degrees
180 degrees
360 degrees
D
4504 0
A8E04
What is the period of a wave?
The time required to complete one cycle
The number of degrees in one cycle
The number of zero crossings in one cycle
The amplitude of the wave
A
4505 0
A8E05
What is a square wave?
A wave with only 300 degrees in one cycle
A wave that abruptly changes back and forth between two voltage levels and remains an equal time at each level
A wave that makes four zero crossings per cycle
A wave in which the positive and negative excursions occupy unequal portions of the cycle time
B
4506 0
A8E06
What is a wave called that abruptly changes back and forth between two voltage levels and remains an equal time at each level?
A sine wave
A cosine wave
A square wave
A sawtooth wave
C
4507 0
A8E07
What sine waves added to a fundamental frequency make up a square wave?
A sine wave 0.707 times the fundamental frequency
All odd and even harmonics
All even harmonics
All odd harmonics
D
4508 0
A8E08
What type of wave is made up of a sine wave of a fundamental frequency and all its odd harmonics?
A square wave
A sine wave
A cosine wave
A tangent wave
A
4509 0
A8E09
What is a sawtooth wave?
A wave that alternates between two values and spends an equal time at each level
A wave with a straight line rise time faster than the fall time (or vice versa)
A wave that produces a phase angle tangent to the unit circle
A wave whose amplitude at any given instant can be represented by a point on a wheel rotating at a uniform speed
B
4510 0
A8E10
What type of wave has a rise time significantly faster than the fall time (or vice versa)?
A cosine wave
A square wave
A sawtooth wave
A sine wave
C
4511 0
A8E11
What type of wave is made up of sine waves of a fundamental frequency and all harmonics?
A sawtooth wave
A square wave
A sine wave
A cosine wave
A
4512 0
A8F01
What is the peak voltage at a common household electrical outlet?
240 volts
170 volts
120 volts
340 volts
B
4513 0
A8F02
What is the peak-to-peak voltage at a common household electrical outlet?
240 volts
120 volts
340 volts
170 volts
C
4514 0
A8F03
What is the RMS voltage at a common household electrical power outlet?
120-V AC
340-V AC
85-V AC
170-V AC
A
4515 0
A8F04
What is the RMS value of a 340-volt peak-to-peak pure sine wave?
120-V AC
170-V AC
240-V AC
300-V AC
A
4516 0
A8F05
What is the equivalent to the root-mean-square value of an AC voltage?
The AC voltage found by taking the square of the average value of the peak AC voltage
The DC voltage causing the same heating of a given resistor as the peak AC voltage
The AC voltage causing the same heating of a given resistor as a DC voltage of the same value
The AC voltage found by taking the square root of the average AC value
C
4517 0
A8F06
What would be the most accurate way of determining the RMS voltage of a complex waveform?
By using a grid dip meter
By measuring the voltage with a D'Arsonval meter
By using an absorption wavemeter
By measuring the heating effect in a known resistor
D
4518 0
A8F07
For many types of voices, what is the approximate ratio of PEP to average power during a modulation peak in a single-sideband phone signal?
2.5 to 1
25 to 1
1 to 1
100 to 1
A
4519 0
A8F08
In a single-sideband phone signal, what determines the PEP-to-average power ratio?
The frequency of the modulating signal
The speech characteristics
The degree of carrier suppression
The amplifier power
B
4520 0
A8F09
What is the approximate DC input power to a Class B RF power amplifier stage in an FM-phone transmitter when the PEP output power is 1500watts?
900 watts
1765 watts
2500 watts
3000 watts
C
4521 0
A8F10
What is the approximate DC input power to a Class C RF power amplifier stage in a RTTY transmitter when the PEP output power is 1000 watts?
850 watts
1250 watts
1667 watts
2000 watts
B
4522 0
A8F11
What is the approximate DC input power to a Class AB RF power amplifier stage in an unmodulated carrier transmitter when the PEP output power is 500 watts?
250 watts
600 watts
800 watts
1000 watts
D
4523 0
A9A01
What is meant by the radiation resistance of an antenna?
The combined losses of the antenna elements and feed line
The specific impedance of the antenna
The equivalent resistance that would dissipate the same amount of power as that radiated from an antenna
The resistance in the atmosphere that an antenna must overcome to be able to radiate a signal
C
4524 0
A9A03
Why would one need to know the radiation resistance of an antenna?
To match impedances for maximum power transfer
To measure the near-field radiation density from a transmitting antenna
To calculate the front-to-side ratio of the antenna
To calculate the front-to-back ratio of the antenna
A
4525 0
A9A04
What factors determine the radiation resistance of an antenna?
Transmission-line length and antenna height
Antenna location with respect to nearby objects and the conductors' length/diameter ratio
It is a physical constant and is the same for all antennas
Sunspot activity and time of day
B
4526 0
A9A05
What is the term for the ratio of the radiation resistance of an antenna to the total resistance of the system?
Effective radiated power
Radiation conversion loss
Antenna efficiency
Beamwidth
C
4527 0
A9A06
What is included in the total resistance of an antenna system?
Radiation resistance plus space impedance
Radiation resistance plus transmission resistance
Transmission-line resistance plus radiation resistance
Radiation resistance plus ohmic resistance
D
4528 0
A9A07
What is a folded dipole antenna?
A dipole one-quarter wavelength long
A type of ground-plane antenna
A dipole whose ends are connected by a one-half wavelength piece of wire
A hypothetical antenna used in theoretical discussions to replace the radiation resistance
C
4529 0
A9A08
How does the bandwidth of a folded dipole antenna compare with that of a simple dipole antenna?
It is 0.707 times the bandwidth
It is essentially the same
It is less than 50%
It is greater
D
4530 0
A9A09
What is meant by antenna gain?
The numerical ratio relating the radiated signal strength of an antenna to that of another antenna
The numerical ratio of the signal in the forward direction to the signal in the back direction
The numerical ratio of the amount of power radiated by an antenna compared to the transmitter output power
The final amplifier gain minus the transmission-line losses(including any phasing lines present)
A
4531 0
A9A10
What is meant by antenna bandwidth?
Antenna length divided by the number of elements
The frequency range over which an antenna can be expected to perform well
The angle between the half-power radiation points
The angle formed between two imaginary lines drawn through the ends of the elements
B
4532 0
A9A11
How can the approximate beamwidth of a beam antenna be determined?
Note the two points where the signal strength of the antenna is down 3 dB from the maximum signal point and compute the angular difference
Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power lobes from the front and rear of the antenna
Draw two imaginary lines through the ends of the elements and measure the angle between the lines
Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power lobes from the front and side of the antenna
A
4533 0
A9A12
How is antenna efficiency calculated?
(radiation resistance / transmission resistance) x 100%
(radiation resistance / total resistance) x 100%
(total resistance / radiation resistance) x 100%
(effective radiated power / transmitter output) x 100%
B
4534 0
A9A13
How can the efficiency of an HF grounded vertical antenna be made comparable to that of a half-wave dipole antenna?
By installing a good ground radial system
By isolating the coax shield from ground
By shortening the vertical
By lengthening the vertical
A
4535 0
A9B01
What determines the free-space polarization of an antenna?
The orientation of its magnetic field (H Field)
The orientation of its free-space characteristic impedance
The orientation of its electric field (E Field)
Its elevation pattern
C
4536 0
A9B02
Which of the following describes the free-space radiation pattern shown in Figure A9-1 ?
Elevation pattern
Azimuth pattern
Bode pattern
Bandwidth pattern
B
4537 0
Figure A9-1
A91.BM_
A9B03
In the free-space H-Field radiation pattern shown in Figure A9-1, what is the 3-dB beamwidth?
75 degrees
50 degrees
25 degrees
30 degrees
B
4538 0
Figure A9-1
A91.BM_
A9B04
In the free-space H-Field pattern shown in Figure A9-1, what is the front-to-back ratio?
36 dB
18 dB
24 dB
14 dB
B
4539 0
Figure A9-1
A91.BM_
A9B05
What information is needed to accurately evaluate the gain of an antenna?
Radiation resistance
E-Field and H-Field patterns
Loss resistance
All of the above
D
4540 0
A9B06
Which is NOT an important reason to evaluate a gain antenna across the whole frequency band for which it was designed?
The gain may fall off rapidly over the whole frequency band
The feedpoint impedance may change radically with frequency
The rearward pattern lobes may vary excessively with frequency
The dielectric constant may vary significantly
D
4541 0
A9B07
What usually occurs if a Yagi antenna is designed solely for maximum forward gain?
The front-to-back ratio increases
The feedpoint impedance becomes very low
The frequency response is widened over the whole frequency band
The SWR is reduced
B
4542 0
A9B08
If the boom of a Yagi antenna is lengthened and the elements are properly retuned, what usually occurs?
The gain increases
The SWR decreases
The front-to-back ratio increases
The gain bandwidth decreases rapidly
A
4543 0
A9B09
What type of computer program is commonly used for modeling antennas?
Graphical analysis
Method of Moments
Mutual impedance analysis
Calculus differentiation with respect to physical properties
B
4544 0
A9B10
What is the principle of a "Method of Moments" analysis?
A wire is modeled as a series of segments, each having a distinct value of current
A wire is modeled as a single sine-wave current generator
A wire is modeled as a series of points, each having a distinct location in space
A wire is modeled as a series of segments, each having a distinct value of voltage across it
A
4545 0
A9B11
In the free-space H-field pattern shown in Figure A9-1, what is the front-to-side ratio?
12 dB
14 dB
18 dB
24 dB
B
4546 0
Figure A9-1
A91.BM_
A9C01
What type of antenna pattern over real ground is shown in Figure A9-2?
Elevation pattern
Azimuth pattern
E-Plane pattern
Polarization pattern
A
4547 0
Figure A9-2
A92.BM_
A9C02
How would the electric field be oriented for a Yagi with three elements mounted parallel to the ground?
Vertically
Horizontally
Right-hand elliptically
Left-hand elliptically
B
4548 0
A9C03
What strongly affects the shape of the far-field, low-angle elevation pattern of a vertically polarized antenna?
The conductivity and dielectric constant of the soil
The radiation resistance of the antenna
The SWR on the transmission line
The transmitter output power
A
4549 0
A9C04
The far-field, low-angle radiation pattern of a vertically polarized antenna can be significantly improved by what measures?
Watering the earth surrounding the base of the antenna
Lengthening the ground radials more than a quarter wavelength
Increasing the number of ground radials from 60 to 120
None of the above
D
4550 0
A9C05
How is the far-field elevation pattern of a vertically polarized antenna affected by being mounted over sea water versus rocky ground?
The low-angle radiation decreases
The high-angle radiation increases
Both the high- and low-angle radiation decrease
The low-angle radiation increases
D
4551 0
A9C06
How is the far-field elevation pattern of a horizontally polarized antenna affected by being mounted one wavelength high over seawater versus rocky ground?
The low-angle radiation greatly increases
The effect on the radiation pattern is minor
The high-angle radiation increases greatly
The nulls in the elevation pattern are filled in
B
4552 0
A9C07
Why are elevated-radial counterpoises popular with vertically polarized antennas?
They reduce the far-field ground losses
They reduce the near-field ground losses, compared to on-ground radial systems using more radials
They reduce the radiation angle
None of the above
B
4553 0
A9C08
If only a modest on-ground radial system can be used with an eighth-wavelength-high, inductively loaded vertical antenna, what would be the best compromise to minimize near-field losses?
4 radial wires, 1 wavelength long
8 radial wires, a half-wavelength long
A wire-mesh screen at the antenna base, an eighth-wavelength square
4 radial wires, 2 wavelengths long
C
4554 0
A9C09
In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure A9-2, what is the elevation angle of the peak response?
45 degrees
75 degrees
7.5 degrees
25 degrees
C
4555 0
Figure A9-2
A92.BM_
A9C10
In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure A9-2, what is the front-to-back ratio?
15 dB
28 dB
3 dB
24 dB
B
4556 0
Figure A9-2
A92.BM_
A9C11
In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure A9-2, how many elevation lobes appear in the forward direction?
4
3
1
7
A
4557 0
Figure A9-2
A92.BM_
A9D01
What is the approximate input terminal impedance at the center of a folded dipole antenna?
300 ohms
72 ohms
50 ohms
450 ohms
A
4558 0
A9D02
For a shortened vertical antenna, where should a loading coil be placed to minimize losses and produce the most effective performance?
Near the center of the vertical radiator
As low as possible on the vertical radiator
As close to the transmitter as possible
At a voltage node
A
4559 0
A9D03
Why should an HF mobile antenna loading coil have a high ratio of reactance to resistance?
To swamp out harmonics
To maximize losses
To minimize losses
To minimize the Q
C
4560 0
A9D04
Why is a loading coil often used with an HF mobile antenna?
To improve reception
To lower the losses
To lower the Q
To tune out the capacitive reactance
D
4561 0
A9D05
What is a disadvantage of using a trap antenna?
It will radiate harmonics
It can only be used for single-band operation
It is too sharply directional at lower frequencies
It must be neutralized
A
4562 0
A9D06
What is an advantage of using a trap antenna?
It has high directivity in the higher-frequency bands
It has high gain
It minimizes harmonic radiation
It may be used for multiband operation
D
4563 0
A9D07
What happens at the base feedpoint of a fixed length HF mobile antenna as the frequency of operation is lowered?
The resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance decreases
The resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance increases
The resistance increases and the capacitive reactance decreases
The resistance increases and the capacitive reactance increases
B
4564 0
A9D08
What information is necessary to design an impedance matching system for an antenna?
Feedpoint radiation resistance and loss resistance
Feedpoint radiation reactance
Transmission-line characteristic impedance
All of the above
D
4565 0
A9D09
How must the driven element in a 3-element Yagi be tuned to use a "hairpin" matching system?
The driven element reactance is capacitive
The driven element reactance is inductive
The driven element resonance is higher than the operating frequency
The driven element radiation resistance is higher than the characteristic impedance of the transmission line
A
4566 0
A9D10
What is the equivalent lumped-constant network for a "hairpin" matching system on a 3-element Yagi?
Pi network
Pi-L network
L network
Parallel-resonant tank
C
4567 0
A9D11
What happens to the bandwidth of an antenna as it is shortened through the use of loading coils?
It is increased
It is decreased
No change occurs
It becomes flat
B
4568 0
A9D12
What is an advantage of using top loading in a shortened HF vertical antenna?
Lower Q
Greater structural strength
Higher losses
Improved radiation efficiency
D
4569 0
A9E01
What is the velocity factor of a transmission line?
The ratio of the characteristic impedance of the line to the terminating impedance
The index of shielding for coaxial cable
The velocity of the wave on the transmission line multiplied by the velocity of light in a vacuum
The velocity of the wave on the transmission line divided by the velocity of light in a vacuum
D
4570 0
A9E02
What is the term for the ratio of the actual velocity at which a signal travels through a transmission line to the speed of light in a vacuum?
Velocity factor
Characteristic impedance
Surge impedance
Standing wave ratio
A
4571 0
A9E03
What is the typical velocity factor for a coaxial cable with polyethylene dielectric?
2.70
0.66
0.30
0.10
B
4572 0
A9E04
What determines the velocity factor in a transmission line?
The termination impedance
The line length
Dielectrics in the line
The center conductor resistivity
C
4573 0
A9E05
Why is the physical length of a coaxial cable transmission line shorter than its electrical length?
Skin effect is less pronounced in the coaxial cable
The characteristic impedance is higher in the parallel feed line
The surge impedance is higher in the parallel feed line
RF energy moves slower along the coaxial cable
D
4574 0
A9E06
What would be the physical length of a typical coaxial transmission line that is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 14.1 MHz?(Assume a velocity factor of 0.66.)
20 meters
2.33 meters
3.51 meters
0.25 meters
C
4575 0
A9E07
What would be the physical length of a typical coaxial transmission line that is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 7.2 MHz?(Assume a velocity factor of 0.66.)
10.5 meters
6.88 meters
24 meters
50 meters
B
4576 0
A9E08
What is the physical length of a parallel conductor feed line that is electrically one-half wavelength long at 14.10 MHz? (Assume a velocity factor of 0.95.)
15 meters
20.2 meters
10.1 meters
70.8 meters
C
4577 0
A9E09
What is the physical length of a twin lead transmission feed line at 3.65 MHz? (Assume a velocity factor of 0.8.)
Electrical length times 0.8
Electrical length divided by 0.8
80 meters
160 meters
A
4578 0
A9E10
What parameter best describes the interactions at the load end of a mismatched transmission line?
Characteristic impedance
Reflection coefficient
Velocity factor
Dielectric Constant
B
4579 0
A9E11
Which of the following measurements describes a mismatched transmission line?
An SWR less than 1:1
A reflection coefficient greater than 1
A dielectric constant greater than 1
An SWR greater than 1:1
D
4580 0
A9E12
What characteristic will 450-ohm ladder line have at 50 MHz, as compared to 0.195-inch-diameter coaxial cable (such as RG-58)?
